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CPIM-8.0 APICS Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your APICS CPIM-8.0 Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2026, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 585 questions

The help desk received a call from a user noting the digital certificate on the organization-issued security identification card was invalid. Which is the BEST reason the certificate stopped working?

A.

The user's certificate was compromised by the public key of the user.

B.

The public key of the Certificate Authority (CA) is known to attackers.

C.

The user's certificate was absent from the Certificate Revocation List (CRL).

D.

The user's certificate has expired and needs to be renewed.

Which of the following tools shows process changes and random variation over time?

A.

Check sheet

B.

Control chart

C.

Histogram

D.

Pareto analysis

An organization has determined that it needs to retain customer records for at least thirty years to discover generational trends in customer behavior. However, relevant local regulation requires that all Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is deleted after expiration of the customer's engagement with the organization, which is usually no longer than one year. How should the data be handled at the expiration of customer engagement at one year?

A.

Because the data contains PII, it should be backed up in an encrypted form, with the encryption key securely kept in a Hardware Security Module (HSM), and all access logged and monitored.

B.

The data should be deleted from the customer website, and archived to a write-once, read-many drive to securely meet the business requirement for analytics.

C.

PII portion of the data should be tokenized or deleted, and the rest of the data stored securely to meet the business requirement for analytics.

D.

Since legal and regulatory compliance takes priority over business requirements, the data should be deleted.

Forecast error typically triggers forecast revision when it is:

A.

used in computing the tracking signal.

B.

associated with the Introduction stage of the product life cycle.

C.

continually increasing.

D.

caused by random variation.

What is the FIRST element that must be evaluated in a security governance program?

A.

An organization’s business objectives and strategy

B.

Review of Information Technology (IT) and technical controls

C.

Review of organization’s Information Technology (IT) security policies

D.

An organization’s utilization of resources

Which of the following mechanisms should a practitioner focus on for the MOST effective information security continuous monitoring?

A.

Implementing automated methods for data collection and reporting where possible

B.

Updating security plans, security assessment reports, hardware, and software inventories

C.

Defining specific methods for monitoring that will maintain or improve security posture

D.

Collecting risk metrics from teams, such as business, testing, QA, development, and operations with security controls

An organization is running a cloud-based application to process the information obtained at point-of-sale devices. Which guideline should be applied to the application?

A.

Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA)

B.

Application Security Verification Standard (ASVS)

C.

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)

D.

Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)

Which of the following inventory management techniques is most responsive to changes in demand levels?

A.

Two-bin system

B.

Periodic review system

C.

Cycle counting

D.

ABC classification

Business management should be engaged in the creation of Business Continuity (BC) and Disaster Recovery plans (DRP) because they need to

A.

Ensure that the technology chosen for implementation meets all of the requirements.

B.

Provide resources and support for the development and testing of the plan.

C.

Predetermine spending for development and implantation of the plan.

D.

Specify the solution and options around which the plans will be developed.

Which of the following security features is utilized to validate both user credentials and the health of the client device on a network?

A.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

B.

Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Network Access Control (NAC)

The question below is based on the following information:

Beginning inventory = 43Week 1Week 2Week 3

Forecast202020

Customer orders221710

Projected on-hand

Master production schedule (MPS)80

Available-to-promise (ATP)

What is the largest customer order that could be accepted for delivery at the end of week 3 without making changes to the master production schedule (MPS)?

A.

74

B.

63

C.

61

D.

31

The planned channels of Inventory disbursement from one or more sources to field warehouses are known as:

A.

a supply chain community.

B.

interplant demand.

C.

a bill of distribution.

D.

logistics data interchange (LDI).

In a make-to-order (MTO) production environment, fluctuations in sales volumes are managed by adjustments to the:

A.

Customer order backlog

B.

Finished goods inventory

C.

Minimum order quantity (MOQ)

D.

Process cycle time

Which of the following can allow an attacker to bypass authentication?

A.

Response tampering

B.

Machine enumeration

C.

User agent manipulation

D.

Social engineering

Which of the following is the BEST option for a security director to use in order to mitigate the risk of inappropriate use of credentials by individuals with administrative rights?

A.

Have administrators sign appropriate access agreements.

B.

Define the Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) for administrators.

C.

Have administrators accept a Non-Disclosure Agreement.

D.

Perform extensive background checks on administrators.

Which of the following categories of web services testing describes correctness testing of web service security functionality?

A.

Focuses on ensuring that security operations performed by a web service meets its stated requirements

B.

Generally includes threat modeling, requirements risk analysis, and security modeling

C.

Ensures that individual protocol implementations adhere to the relevant published standards

D.

Focuses on the smallest unit of the web service application, apart from the rest of the application

An organization recently completed an acquisition of another entity and staff members are complaining about the excessive number of credentials they need to remember as each application requires separate logins. This is negatively affecting collaboration efficiency and increasing the risk of human errors. What will the organization consider implementing as part of the solution to improve the situation?

A.

Open Authorization (OAuth) 2.0

B.

Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) 2.0

C.

Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)

D.

OpenID Connect (OIDC)

An organization is retiring an old server out of the data center. This server was used to store and process sensitive information. The server is being sent off-site to a recycling center. Which declassification method should be performed prior to it being sent off-site?

A.

Tokenization

B.

Anonymization

C.

Obfuscation

D.

Destruction

An organization suffered a loss to an asset at a frequency that was different than the initially estimated Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). What is the appropriate course of action?

A.

Do nothing; the loss validates the ARO.

B.

DO nothing; the loss validates the exposure factor.

C.

Recalculate the value of the safeguard.

D.

Recalculate the cost of the countermeasure.

What is the HIGHEST security concern on trans-border data?

A.

Organizations that are not in highly regulated industries do not have the resources to achieve compliance.

B.

Cyber transactions occur in an ever-changing legal and regulatory landscape without fixed borders.

C.

Information security practitioners are not Subject Matter Experts (SME) for all legal and compliance requirements.

D.

Organizations must follow all laws and regulations related to the use of the Internet.

Which of the following techniques would a group use to prioritize problems?

A.

Critical path analysis

B.

Pareto analysis

C.

Scatter charts

D.

Cause-and-effect diagrams

Which of the following is the BEST reason to conduct a penetration test?

A.

To verify compliance with organizational patching policies.

B.

To document that all relevant patches have been installed.

C.

To identify technical vulnerabilities.

D.

To determine if weaknesses can be exploited.

Bad actors with little expense can easily make calls. Which social engineer strategy is a telecommunications ONLY risk concept?

A.

Pretexting

B.

Diversion theft

C.

Phreaking

D.

Baiting

An organization is attempting to address the security risk introduced by employees writing down door entry passcodes. Which of the following security measures BEST mitigates this risk?

A.

Privileged Access Management (PAM) policy

B.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

C.

Video log monitoring

D.

Notification alerts

The trade-off of increasing safety stock to improve customer fill rate would be a decrease in:

A.

pipeline inventory.

B.

transportation costs.

C.

inventory turns.

D.

sales revenue.

An organization wants to ensure a risk does not occur. The action taken is to eliminate the attack surface by uninstalling vulnerable software. Which risk response strategy did the organization take?

A.

Accepting risk

B.

Avoiding risk

C.

Mitigating risk

D.

Transferring risk

Which of the following systems would be the most cost-efficient for inventory management of a low value item?

A.

Order point

B.

Material requirements planning (MRP)

C.

Periodic review

D.

Economic order quantity(EOQ)

What should an organization do to prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) efforts?

A.

Create a list of key personnel

B.

Create a list of decommissioned hardware

C.

Review tabletop exercises

D.

Replicate access logs

Which of the following statements is an assumption on which the economic order quantity (EOQ) model is based?

A.

Customer demand is known but seasonal.

B.

Items are purchased and/or produced continuously and not in batches.

C.

Order preparation costs and inventory-carrying costs are constant and known.

D.

Holding costs, as a percentage of the unit cost, are variable.

Which of the following factors is the MOST important consideration for a security team when determining when determining whether cryptographic erasure can be used for disposal of a device?

A.

If the methods meet the International organization For Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission (ISO/IEC) 27001.

B.

If the data on the device exceeds what cryptographic erasure can safely process.

C.

If the device was encrypted prior using cipher block chaining.

D.

If the security policies allow for cryptographic erasure based on the data stored on the device.

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Total 585 questions
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