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CPIM-8.0 APICS Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your APICS CPIM-8.0 Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 565 questions

What function prevents unauthorized devices from gaining access to a network?

A.

Network Access Control (NAC)

B.

Storage Area Network (SAN)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Software-Defined Network (SDN)

Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in planned production that is greater than the total demand over the sales and operations planning (S&OP) horizon for a product family that is

made to stock?

A.

An increase in the customer service level is planned for the product family.

B.

New models are being added to the product family.

C.

Planned ending inventory for the product family is less than the beginning inventory.

D.

There is a long-term upward trend in demand for the product family.

Which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer is concerned with Denial-Of-Service (DoS) SYN flood attacks?

A.

Data

B.

Physical

C.

Network

D.

Transport

A security engineer must address resource sharing between various applications without adding physical hardware to the environment. Which secure design principle is used to BEST segregate applications?

A.

Network firewalls

B.

Logical isolation

C.

Application firewalls

D.

Physical isolation

An organization provides customer call center operations for major financial service organizations around the world. As part of a long-term strategy, the organization plans to add healthcare clients to the portfolio. In preparation for contract negotiations with new clients, to which cybersecurity framework(s) should the security team ensure the organization adhere?

A.

Frameworks that fit the organization’s risk appetite, as cybersecurity does not vary industry to industry

B.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT) and Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA) frameworks

C.

Frameworks specific to the industries and locations clients do business in

D.

National Institute Of Standards And Technology and International Organization For Standardization (ISO) frameworks

Which of the following items does the master scheduler have the authority to change in the master scheduling process?

A.

Product mix

B.

Aggregate volume

C.

Engineering change effectivity date

D.

Customer order quantities

Which of the following factors is the MOST important consideration for a security team when determining when determining whether cryptographic erasure can be used for disposal of a device?

A.

If the methods meet the International organization For Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission (ISO/IEC) 27001.

B.

If the data on the device exceeds what cryptographic erasure can safely process.

C.

If the device was encrypted prior using cipher block chaining.

D.

If the security policies allow for cryptographic erasure based on the data stored on the device.

While doing a penetration test, auditors found an old credential hash for a privileged user. To prevent a privileged user's hash from being cached, what is the MOST appropriate policy to mandate?

A.

Add privileged user to the domain admin group.

B.

Add privileged users to the protected users group.

C.

Enable security options for each privileged user.

D.

Place each privileged user in a separate Kerberos policy.

In a lean environment, the batch-size decision for planning "A" items would be done by:

A.

least total cost.

B.

min-max system.

C.

lot-for-lot (L4L).

D.

periodic order quantity.

What should an organization do to prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) efforts?

A.

Create a list of key personnel

B.

Create a list of decommissioned hardware

C.

Review tabletop exercises

D.

Replicate access logs

Based on the values reported in the table below, what is the inventory turnover?

A.

0.50

B.

0.58

C.

1.73

D.

2.60

A security team member is assessing an organization’s backup strategy that follows the 3-2-1 rule. How many different types of media should they inspect to validate?

A.

6

B.

3

C.

2

D.

1

Which of the following BEST describes web service security conformance testing as it relates to web services security testing?

A.

Generally includes threat modeling, requirements risk analysis, and security modeling

B.

Focused on ensuring that the security functionally performed by a web service meets its stated requirements

C.

Ensure individual protocol implementations adhere to the relevant published standards

D.

Focused on the smallest unit of the web service application, apart from the rest of the application

An organization provides customer call center operations for major financial services organizations around the world. As part of a long-term strategy, the organization plans to add healthcare clients to the portfolio. In preparation for contract negotiations with new clients, to which cybersecurity framework(s) should the security team ensure the organization adhere?

A.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT) and Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA) frameworks

B.

National Institute Of Standards And Technology (NIST) and International Organization For Standardization (ISO) frameworks

C.

Frameworks specific to the industries and locations clients do business in

D.

Frameworks that fit the organization’s risk appetite, as cybersecurity does not vary industry to industry

Which of the following is the benefit of using Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) version 2 on endpoint devices?

A.

Apply patches to endpoints across the enterprise.

B.

Use software configuration management for endpoints.

C.

Monitor endpoints by collecting software inventory and configuration settings.

D.

Enforce Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) on endpoints across the enterprise.

A financial organization is using an internally developed application. The internal software development team has to adhere to the coding standards of the Software Development Cycle (SDLC). For applications whose functionality is exposed through the public Internet, this requirement consists of testing the application for potential vulnerabilities before it is deployed into production. What is the BEST type of vulnerability test to perform?

A.

Web application unit test

B.

Online application development test

C.

Web application penetration test

D.

Online application assurance test

Which of the following factors is used to determine safety stock?

A.

Number of customers

B.

Available capacity

C.

Forecast error distribution

D.

Time between customer orders

A semiconductor manufacturer is writing a physical asset handling policy. Which of the following is MOST likely to be the rationale for the policy?

A.

Access of system logs to authorized staff

B.

Accurate and prompt tagging of all business files

C.

Assurance of safe and clean handling of company property

D.

Adoption of environmental controls in the server room

In a large organization, the average time for a new user to receive access is seven days. Which of the following is the BEST enabler to shorten this time?

A.

Implement a self-service password management capability

B.

Increase system administration personnel

C.

Implement an automated provisioning tool

D.

Increase authorization workflow steps

After a recent cybersecurity incident, a manufacturing organization is interested in further hardening its Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution. Knowing that the organization limits the use of personal devices in the facility, which could BEST be implemented to enhance the manufacturing organization's IAM solution?

A.

Enhanced background checks

B.

Mobile Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) application

C.

Biometric system

D.

Personal Identification Number (PIN) code

A Software As A Service (SaaS) solution was compromised due to multiple missing security controls. The SaaS deployment was rushed and the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) was not followed. Which SDLC phase would have been MOST effective in preventing this failure?

A.

Design

B.

Requirements

C.

Maintenance

D.

Testing

When implementing a data classification program, Which is MOST important for measuring businesss impact?

A.

Data classification program being rolled out in accordance with policies and procedures

B.

Measuring the size of the data set to understand scoping for compliance requirements

C.

The adverse effect of data leakage

D.

The early appointment of data custodians

The Information Technology (IT) manager of a large organization has been tasked with implementing a distributed third-party Identity As A Service (IDaaS). The local security team is concerned that the Identity Provider (IdP) and resource provider have direct connectivity outside of enterprise control. Which of the following authentication methods BEST address this concern?

A.

Federation authorities access list

B.

Manual registration

C.

Proxied federation

D.

Signed assertion

An organization is implementing improvements to secure the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC). When should defensive three modeling occur?

A.

Standards review

B.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

C.

Design and requirements gathering

D.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

A company is having trouble with raw material deliveries and has decided to develop a supplier certification program. The certification process most appropriately would start with which of the following suppliers?

A.

Suppliers of "A“ classified items

B.

Suppliers recently ISO 9000 certified

C.

Suppliers with the worst performance records

D.

Suppliers with vendor-managed inventory (VMI)

A recent email-based malware breakout caused a significant volume of traffic and password spam account lockouts for an organization. Which BEST identifies compromised devices?

A.

Security Information And Event Management (SIEM)

B.

Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)

C.

Vulnerability scan

D.

Penetration test

Which of the following controls should a financial Institution have in place in order to prevent a trader from both entering and executing a trade?

A.

Cameras in the trading room

B.

Two-Factor Authentication (2FA)

C.

Separation of Duties (SoD)

D.

Least privilege

A security specialist is responsible to improve the security awareness program of a medium-sized organization and tasked to track blocked targeted attacks. Which of the following BEST describes the outcome of the security specialist’s use of metrics for this task?

A.

A decrease in reported suspicious activity that aligns with an increase in detection of malware and Domain Name Server (DNS) queries to blocked sites.

B.

An increase in reported suspicious activity that aligns with a decrease in detection of malware and Domain Name Server (DNS) queries to blocked sites.

C.

An increase in reported changes in click percentage that aligns with a decrease in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

D.

A decrease in reported changes in click percentages that aligns with an increase in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

The Information Technology (IT) manager of a large organization has been tasked with implementing a distributed third-party Identity As A Service (IDaaS). The local security team is concerned that the Identity Provider (IdP) and resource provider have direct connectivity outside of enterprise control. Which of the following authentication methods BEST address this concern?

A.

Federation authorities access list

B.

Manual registration

C.

Proxied federation

D.

Signed assertion

Which of the following is a component of the Clark-Wilson model?

A.

Transformation procedures

B.

Enforcement rules

C.

Data classifications

D.

Integrity labels

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Total 565 questions
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