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CPIM-8.0 APICS Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your APICS CPIM-8.0 Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2026, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 585 questions

Which of the following threats MUST be included while conducting threat modeling for a Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

A.

Risks of data breaches that can result from inadequate encryption of tenant data in transit and at rest

B.

Potential legal actions from third parties due to tenants’ activities on the CSP’s platform

C.

Vulnerabilities in shared resources that can be exploited by attackers to affect multiple tenants

D.

Threats originating from the CSP’s tenants that can impact the infrastructure and other tenants

An organization has network services in a data center that are provisioned only for internal use, and staff at offices and staff working from home both use the services to store sensitive customer data. The organization does not want the Internet Protocol (IP) address of the service to receive traffic from users not related to the organization. Which technology is MOST useful to the organization in protecting this network?

A.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

B.

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

Which of the following should Business Impact Analysis (BIA) reports always include?

A.

Security assessment report

B.

Recovery time objectives

C.

Plan of action and milestones

D.

Disaster Recovery Plans (DRP)

Which of the following statements characterizes a pull system In distribution management?

A.

Each warehouse makes its own replenishment decisions.

B.

It uses distribution requirements planning(DRP).

C.

It uses uniform performance measures.

D.

It uses fair-share allocation.

Which of the following is the BEST type of fire extinguisher for a data center environment?

A.

Class A

B.

Class B

C.

Class C

D.

Class D

A newly hired Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is now responsible to build a third-party assurance for their organization. When assessing a third-party, which of the following questions needs to be answered?

A.

How many employees the third-party employs?

B.

Which level of support does the third-party provide related to security?

C.

What is the monetary value of the third-party contract?

D.

To which standards does the third-party need to be assessed?

A security specialist is responsible to improve the security awareness program of a medium-sized organization and tasked to track blocked targeted attacks. Which of the following BEST describes the outcome of the security specialist’s use of metrics for this task?

A.

A decrease in reported suspicious activity that aligns with an increase in detection of malware and Domain Name Server (DNS) queries to blocked sites.

B.

An increase in reported suspicious activity that aligns with a decrease in detection of malware and Domain Name Server (DNS) queries to blocked sites.

C.

An increase in reported changes in click percentage that aligns with a decrease in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

D.

A decrease in reported changes in click percentages that aligns with an increase in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

In an organization that develops aircrafts for military usage, where will the security team focus its efforts to ensure the organization’s data remains confidential?

A.

Technology to monitor the use and transfer of sensitive data

B.

User awareness training

C.

De-identification and sanitization of sensitive data

D.

Data breach insurance

When an organization is recruiting for roles within the organization, at which stage of the employee life cycle are termination procedures incorporated?

A.

Security training

B.

Orientation

C.

User provisioning

D.

Background check

One of the most useful tools for analyzing the sustainable footprint is:

A.

process mapping.

B.

lean six sigma.

C.

SWOT analysis.

D.

ISO 9000.

Which of the following MUST exist for an activity to be considered an audit?

A.

An auditor that is in no way employed, connected or associated to the organization being audited

B.

Stored Personally Identifiable Information (PII) that an organization has a legal obligation to protect

C.

A predefined standard and systematic approach to test the application of that standard

D.

A certified member of a professional body qualified in the area of inspection

Given the bill of material (BOM) information below and independent requirements of 10 pieces (pcs) per week of Component A and 20 pieces (pcs) per week of Component B, what is the weekly gross requirement of component F?

A.

80

B.

120

C.

160

D.

200

The costs provided in the table below are associated with buying a quantity larger than immediately needed. What Is the total landed cost based on this table?

Cost CategoryCost

Custom fees$125

Freight$700

Warehouse rent$200

Matenal cost$500

A.

$825

B.

$1,325

C.

$1,400

D.

$1,525

Based on the values reported in the table below, what is the inventory turnover?

A.

0.50

B.

0.58

C.

1.73

D.

2.60

What is the MAIN purpose of risk and impact analysis?

A.

Calculate the cost of implementing effective countermeasures.

B.

Calculate the effort of implementing effective countermeasures.

C.

Identify countermeasures.

D.

Eliminate the risk of most threats.

A part is sold as a service part, and It is also used as a component In another part. Which of the following statements about the planning for this part is true?

A.

Its low-level code is zero.

B.

The material requirements for the part will be understated.

C.

The service part demand can be included In the gross requirements.

D.

It shouldn’t have any safety stock.

When a third-party needs to receive privileged information, which of the following would be the BEST to

transport the data?

A.

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol

B.

Encrypted at rest

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Encrypted in transit

An example of a cradle-to-cradle sustainability model would be:

A.

a laundry service collects dirty baby clothes from families; cleans the clothes in large, efficient batches; and then sorts and delivers the clothes back to each family.

B.

a coffee shop collects paper waste in its restaurants, has a selected supplier collect the paper waste to be recycled, and then purchases paper products from that supplier.

C.

a company uses wood that has been gathered from multiple sources to construct items, such as beds and toys for babies and young children.

D.

a bank offers the lowest interest rates on loans to firms that are committed to using recycled materials and implementing zero-waste initiatives in their processes.

The master schedule is an Important tool in the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process because it:

A.

represents the forecast before changes are made in S&OP.

B.

represents the forecast with less detail.

C.

balances supply and demand at the product mix level.

D.

balances supply and demand at the sales volume level.

When resolving conflicts, which canon within the ISC2 Code of Ethics requires members to consider duties to principals and Individuals?

A.

Maintain the privacy and confidentiality of information obtained.

B.

Advance and protect the profession.

C.

Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally.

D.

Maintain competency in their respective fields.

An organization experienced multiple compromises of endpoints, leading to breaches of systems and data. In updating its strategy to defend against these threats, which of the following BEST considers the organization’s needs?

A.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE)

B.

Zero Trust (ZT) threat modeling

C.

Operationally Critical Threat, Asset, and Vulnerability Evaluation (OCTAVE)

D.

Process for Attack Simulation and Threat Analysis (PASTA)

A systems engineer has been tasked by management to provide a recommendation with a prioritized, focused set of actions to help the organization stop high-risk cyber attacks and ensure data security. What should the systems engineer recommend the organization use to accomplish this?

A.

Center for Internet Security critical security controls

B.

Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT)

C.

Inventory baseline controls

D.

Security content automation protocol controls

Which of the following product design approaches are likely to reduce time to market for a global supply chain?

A.

Concurrent engineering

B.

Design for manufacture

C.

Design for logistics

D.

Quality function deployment (QFD)

An information security auditor is creating an audit program to assess endpoint security controls for portable storage media movement. Which type of control will MOST likely be part of the program?

A.

Detective control

B.

Device control

C.

Recovery control

D.

Network control

A new organization building is being designed and the security manager has been asked for input on needed security requirements. Which of the following controls are MOST applicable to this scenario?

A.

Deterrent controls, such as signs announcing video cameras and alarms, are installed.

B.

Preventative controls, such as Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and security guards, are used.

C.

Preventative controls, such as Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and mechanical locks, are used.

D.

Deterrent controls, such as signs announcing video cameras and alarms, are installed.

An organization is looking to integrate security concepts into the code development process early in development to detect issues before the software is launched. Which advantage does the organization gain from using Static Application Security Testing (SAST) techniques versus dynamic application security testing techniques?

A.

Allows tailored techniques

B.

Executes code to detect issues

C.

Allows for earlier vulnerability detection

D.

Simulates attacker patterns

A life cycle assessment (LCA) would be used to determine:

A.

the length of a long-term agreement.

B.

how an Item should be scheduled.

C.

environmental aspects and impacts.

D.

If risk pooling would reduce inventory investment.

In a rapidly changing business environment, a primary advantage of an effective customer relationship management (CRM) program is:

A.

reduced forecast variability.

B.

fewer customer order changes.

C.

fewer customer defections.

D.

earlier Identification of shifts Incustomer preferences.

In which of the following circumstances is an organization MOST likely to report the accidental release of personal data to the European Union (EU) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) supervisory authority and affected users?

A.

The release of personal data was made to a highly trusted third-party vendor and there was confirmation that the data was not accessed before it was returned.

B.

The personal data was stored in a highly encrypted format and there is confirmation that the encryption keys were not accessed or released.

C.

All the personal data from the accidental release was from individuals who are not living in the EU.

D.

The personal data released only contained the ages and names of children who may or may not be living in the EU.

The primary purpose for engaging in cycle count activities is to:

A.

eliminate the need for a traditional physical inventory count.

B.

more frequently reconcile the actual on-hand and system on-hand for items.

C.

smooth out the tasks of counting inventory throughout the fiscal year.

D.

improve material handling processes and reduce or eliminate errors.

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Total 585 questions
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