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ISEB-PM1 BCS Foundation Certificate in IS Project Management Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your BCS ISEB-PM1 BCS Foundation Certificate in IS Project Management certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

Page: 6 / 7
Total 625 questions

Which of the following is an input to Collect Requirements?

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Prototypes

D.

Organizational process assets

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project management plan

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Product analysis

You are the project manager for a top-secret software project for an agency of the United States government. Your mission-should you choose to accept it-is to complete the project using internal resources. The reason is that finding contractors with top-secret clearances takes quite a bit of time, and waiting for clearances would jeopardize the implementation date. Your programmers are 80 percent of the way through the programming and testing work when your agency appoints a new executive director. Slowly but surely your programmers are taken off this project and reassigned to the executive director's hot new project.

Which of the following type of project ending is this?

A.

Extinction

B.

Starvation

C.

Addition

D.

Integration

During the opening rounds of contract negotiation, the other party uses a fait accompli tactic. Which of the following statements is true about fait accompli tactics?

A.

One party claims the issue under discussion was documented and accepted as part of ScopeVerification.

B.

One party claims the issue under discussion has already been decided and can't be changed.

C.

One party claims to accept the offer of the other party, provided a contract change request is submitted describing the offer in detail.

D.

One party agrees to accept the offer of the other party but secretly knows they will bring the issue back up at a later time.

Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?

EV = $500

PV= $750

AC= $1000

BAC= $1200

A.

0.67

B.

1.50

C.

0.75

D.

0.50

Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except:

A.

Analysis of alternatives

B.

Decision making

C.

Team building

D.

Convergent thinking

E.

Uninhibited verbalization

Based on the following metrics: EV=$20,000, AC=$22,000 and PV=$28,000, what is the project CV?

A.

-$8,000

B.

-$2,000

C.

$2,000

D.

$8,000

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes and procedures?

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project managers will be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US $150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other than daily status.

How would you define this situation?

A.

Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project.

B.

This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.

C.

This is a recurring process.

D.

Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project management.

Which of the following provides a standardized, effective, and efficient way to centrally manage approved changes and baselines within a project?

A.

Project management information system

B.

Configuration management system

C.

Change control board

D.

Project management plan

The project management office is worried about the quality of the company's various projects. They want to know which projects are having problems and which ones are doing well.

If the PMO receives the following information, which project should they be the MOST concerned about?

A.

Project A with a benefit cost ratio of 2.3

B.

Project B with a benefit cost ratio of 1.3

C.

Project C with a benefit cost ratio of negative 2.3

D.

Project D with a benefit cost ratio of negative 1.3

In which of the following types of contracts is it most important for the contractor to maintain control of cost, schedule and scope changes.

A.

cost plus incentive fee

B.

cost plus incentive fee and firm fixed price

C.

firm fixed price

D.

cost plus fixed fee

E.

unit price

A contract change control system defines which of the following?

A.

Process by which the procurement is being satisfied

B.

Process by which the procurement can be modified

C.

Process by which the procurement can be obtained

D.

Process by which the procurement can be disposed

Sally is a project manager working on a project that will require a specially engineered machine. Only three manufacturers can make the machine to the specifications Sally needs. The price of this machine is particularly critical to this project. The budget is limited, and there's no chance of securing additional funds if the bids for the machine come in higher than budgeted.

She's developing the evaluation criteria for the bidders' responses and knows all of the following are true except for which one?

A.

Sally will review the project management plan, including the risk register, as inputs to this process.

B.

Sally will base the evaluation criteria on price alone since the budget is a constraint.

C.

Sally will update the contract statement of work with any new information.

D.

Sally will use standard contract forms provided by her procurement department to write the contract for this machine.

What is risk tolerance?

A.

Ability to manage risks

B.

Willingness to accept varying degrees of risks

C.

Ability to mitigate risks

D.

Willingness to develop a risk management plan

A clear definition of the user's needs serves as the direct basis for the:

A.

Selection of personnel.

B.

Termination decision.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Functional requirements.

E.

Project cost estimate.

You are a project manager for Dutch Harbor Consulting. Your latest project involves the upgrade of an organization's operating system on 236 servers. You performed this project under contract.

You are in the Closing process and know that product verification is for what purpose?

A.

To verify that all the work was completed correctly and satisfactorily

B.

To evaluate project goals and ensure that the product of the project meets the requirements

C.

To verify the goals of the project and ensure that the product of the project is complete

D.

To evaluate all the work of the project and compare the results to project scope

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

What is the definition of project plan execution?

A.

Integrating all planned activities.

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan.

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan.

D.

Execution of deliverables.

A company attorney, newly hired by the company, walks into the project manager's office and tells her that he is ready to work with her on the procurement process. The project manager has little experience with procurement, so she is excited to have the assistance.

With which of the following would it be BEST for the project manager to ask the attorney for help?

A.

Claims administration, audit results, and updating organizational process assets

B.

Contract change control system, payments, and change requests

C.

Recommended corrective actions, performance reporting, and records management system

D.

Procurement documentation, project management plan updates, and procurement management plan updates

All of the following are inputs to the quality process EXCEPT:

A.

Organizational process assets.

B.

Checklists.

C.

Quality policy.

D.

The project scope statement.

Which technique is commonly used for the Quantitative Risk Analysis activity?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for Opportunities

C.

Decision Tree Analysis

D.

Risk Data Quality Assessment

The project charter is developed by:

A.

the customer

B.

senior management and the project manager

C.

senior management

D.

None of the other alternatives apply

E.

the project manager

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same.

D.

Has no bearing.

Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?

A.

Acceptance of the work deliverables.

B.

Accuracy of the work deliverables.

C.

Approval of the scope statement.

D.

Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.

Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account?

A.

Network reserve analysis

B.

Critical chain method

C.

Lead and lag adjustment

D.

Critical path method

Which tool or technique uses the 80/20 principle?

A.

Pareto chart

B.

Cause and effect diagrams

C.

Control charts

D.

Flowcharting

You know that PV = 470, AC = 430, EV = 480, EAC = 500, and BAC = 525.

What is VAC?

A.

25

B.

30

C.

20

D.

70

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration"?

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

What are the Scope Definition process tools and techniques?

A.

Product analysis, alternatives identification, expert judgment, and stakeholder analysis

B.

Alternatives identification, stakeholder analysis, and expert judgment

C.

Product analysis, cost benefit analysis, alternatives identification, and expert judgment

D.

Cost benefit analysis, templates, and expert judgment

Page: 6 / 7
Total 625 questions
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