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CCSK Cloud Security Alliance Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSKv5.0) Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSKv5.0) certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 305 questions

How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?

A.

Multiple copies in different locations

B.

Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly

C.

Full back ups weekly

D.

Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures

E.

Incremental backups daily

What primary aspects should effective cloud governance address to ensure security and compliance?

A.

Service availability, disaster recovery, load balancing, and latency

B.

Decision making, prioritization, monitoring, and transparency

C.

Encryption, redundancy, data integrity, and scalability

D.

Authentication, authorization, accounting, and auditing

Which Identity and Access Management (IAM) principle focuses on implementing multiple security layers to dilute access power, thereby averting a misuse or compromise?

A.

Continuous Monitoring

B.

Federation

C.

Segregation of Duties

D.

Principle of Least Privilege

Which benefit of automated deployment pipelines most directly addresses continuous security and reliability?

A.

They enable consistent and repeatable deployment processes

B.

They enhance collaboration through shared tools

C.

They provide detailed reports on team performance

D.

They ensure code quality through regular reviews

Which technique is most effective for preserving digital evidence in a cloud environment?

A.

Analyzing management plane logs

B.

Regularly backing up data

C.

Isolating the compromised system

D.

Taking snapshots of virtual machines

Which of the following statements best describes an identity

federation?

A.

A library of data definitions

B.

A group of entities which have decided to exist together in a singlecloud

C.

Identities which share similar attributes

D.

Several countries which have agreed to define their identities withsimilar attributes

E.

The connection of one identity repository to another

How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

A.

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

B.

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

C.

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

D.

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

What tool allows teams to easily locate and integrate with approved cloud services?

A.

Contracts

B.

Shared Responsibility Model

C.

Service Registry

D.

Risk Register

What is an essential security characteristic required when using multi-tenanttechnologies?

A.

Segmented and segregated customer environments

B.

Limited resource allocation

C.

Resource pooling

D.

Abstraction and automation

In Identity and Access Management (IAM) containment, why is it crucial to understand if an attacker escalated their identity?

A.

It aids in determining the source IP of the attacker.

B.

Because it simplifies the recovery process and increases the response time.

C.

To prevent further unauthorized access and limit the management plane blast radius.

D.

To facilitate the eradication of malware.

Which of the following best describes a key benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

A.

SDN is a hardware-based solution for optimizing network performance

B.

SDN eliminates the need for physical network devices and cabling

C.

SDN allows networks to be dynamically configured and managed through software

D.

SDN is primarily focused on improving network security through advanced firewalls

In which deployment model should the governance strategy consider the minimum common set of controls comprised of the Cloud Service Provider contract and the organization's internal governance agreements?

A.

Public

B.

PaaS

C.

Private

D.

IaaS

E.

Hybrid

In a cloud environment, what does the Shared Security Responsibility Model primarily aim to define?

A.

The division of security responsibilities between cloud providers and customers

B.

The relationships between IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS providers

C.

The compliance with geographical data residency and sovereignty

D.

The guidance for the cloud compliance framework

Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?

A.

The cloud consumer

B.

The majority is covered by the consumer

C.

It depends on the agreement

D.

The responsibility is split equally

E.

The cloud provider

Which opportunity helps reduce common application security issues?

A.

Elastic infrastructure

B.

Default deny

C.

Decreased use of micro-services

D.

Segregation by default

E.

Fewer serverless configurations

Which concept focuses on maintaining the same configuration for all infrastructure components, ensuring they do not change once deployed?

A.

Component credentials

B.

Immutable infrastructure

C.

Infrastructure as code

D.

Application integration

Which of the following is one of the five essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by NIST?

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Nation-state boundaries

C.

Measured service

D.

Unlimited bandwidth

E.

Hybrid clouds

In the IaaS shared responsibility model, which responsibility typically falls on the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

A.

Encrypting data at rest

B.

Ensuring physical security of data centers

C.

Managing application code

D.

Configuring firewall rules

All assets require the same continuity in the cloud.

A.

False

B.

True

In the context of incident response, which phase involves alerts validation to reduce false positives and estimates the incident's scope?

A.

Preparation

B.

Post-Incident Analysis

C.

Detection & Analysis

D.

Containment, Eradication, & Recovery

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Total 305 questions
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