SK0-005 CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

A mantrap is a security device that consists of two interlocking doors that allow only one person to enter at a time. A mantrap would prevent employees from blocking the door in the main data center and force them to enter properly using their credentials. The other options would not enforce proper entry to the data center

A single-threaded application is an application that can only execute one task or process at a time. A single-threaded application can only utilize one CPU core, regardless of how many cores are available or assigned to the virtual machine. Therefore, adding more vCPU cores to the VM will not improve the performance of the application, as it will still be limited by the speed and capacity of one core12.

To troubleshoot this issue, the administrator should check if the application is single-threaded or multi-threaded. This can be done by using tools such as Task Manager, Performance Monitor, or Process Explorer on Windows, or top, htop, or ps on Linux34. If the application is single-threaded, the administrator should consider the following options:

Reduce the number of vCPU cores on the VM to match the number of threads that the application can use. This can help avoid CPU contention and co-stop issues that may arise from having too many vCPUsrelative to the number of physical cores on the host5.

Upgrade the physical CPU on the host to a faster or newer model that can provide higher clock speed and performance for the single core that the application uses.

Optimize the application code or configuration to make it more efficient or multi-threaded, if possible. This can help the application take advantage of multiple cores and improve its performance.

An incremental backup only backs up files that have changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. Therefore, an incremental backup file may require another file to restore data, depending on the sequence of backups. A full backup backs up all files and does not require any other file to restore data. A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of data that does not depend on other files. A differential backup backs up files that have changed since the last full backup and does not require any other file to restore data.

A RAID controller battery is used to protect the data in the cache memory of the controller in case of a power failure. The cache memory allows the controller to improve the write performance by buffering the data and writing it to the disk in an optimized way. However, if the battery fails, the controller will switch to write-through mode, which means it will write the data directly to the disk without caching. This will reduce the write performance and increase the latency of the system

A public cloud is a cloud model that provides shared resources and services over the internet to multiple users or organizations. The cloud provider owns and manages the infrastructure and charges users based on their usage or subscription. A public cloud can offer scalability, flexibility, and cost-efficiency for users who need access to various applications and data without investing in their own hardware or software. Verified References: [Public cloud], [Cloud model]

RAID 6 is a level of RAID that can survive the failure of two drives without the loss of data. RAID 6 uses block-level striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks. RAID 6 can tolerate two simultaneous drive failures and still provide data access and redundancy. RAID 0 is a level of RAID that uses striping without parity or mirroring, and offers no fault tolerance. RAID 0 cannot survive any drive failure without data loss. RAID 1 is a level of RAID that uses mirroring without parity or striping, and offers fault tolerance by duplicating data on two or more disks. RAID 1 can survive one drive failure without data loss, but not two. RAID 5 is a level of RAID that uses block-level striping with one parity block distributed across all member disks. RAID 5 can tolerate one drive failure without data loss, but not two. References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels

An out-of-band (OOB) solution is a method of accessing and managing a server remotely without using the network connection or the operating system of the server. An OOB solution can use a dedicated management port, a serial console, or a KVM switch to provide a resilient connection while performing changes to the network configuration of the server. An OOB solution is more reliable than a VNC or RDP console, which depend on the network and the operating system, and more convenient than a crash cart, which requires physical access to the server.

netstat is a command-line tool that displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, and more. The -a option shows all listening and non-listening sockets on the server. This can help check the open ports on a server and identify any unwanted or malicious connections.References:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/netstat

The answer to this question may depend on several factors, such as the number and type of Windows VMs, the number and type of host machines, the number and type of users, and the specific licensing terms and conditions of each licensing model. However, based on the information available from the web search results, one possible answer is per user.

Per user licensing model is a licensing model that allows a user to access Windows VMs from any device, regardless of the number of devices or VMs. Per user licensing model is available for Windows 10 Enterprise E3/E5, Windows VDA E3/E5, and Microsoft 365 F3/E3/E5. Per user licensing model may offer the greatest number of concurrent Windows VMs to run on a host for the lowest cost if the following conditions are met:

The user needs to access multiple Windows VMs from different devices, such as desktops, laptops, tablets, or smartphones.

The user needs to access Windows VMs that run different versions or editions of Windows, such as Windows 10 Enterprise, Windows 10 Pro, or Windows 7 Enterprise.

The user needs to access Windows VMs that run on different types of host machines, such as physical servers, virtual servers, or cloud servers.

The user does not need to access Windows VMs that run on dedicated hardware or have specific performance or security requirements.

According to the web search results1, per user licensing model costs $84 per user per year for Windows 10 Enterprise E3, $168 per user per year for Windows 10 Enterprise E5, $100.80 per user per year for Windows VDA E3, and $196.80 per user per year for Windows VDA E5.These prices are based on the Open License Program and may vary depending on the volume and agreement level2

Per core licensing model is a licensing model that requires a license for each core of the processor on the host machine that runs Windows VMs. Per core licensing model is available for Windows Server 2022 Datacenter andStandard editions. Per core licensing model may offer a lower cost than per user licensing model if the following conditions are met:

The host machine has a low number of cores or a high core density.

The host machine runs a high number of Windows VMs with low resource consumption.

The host machine runs only Windows Server VMs with the same edition as the host machine.

According to the web search results2, per core licensing model costs $6,155 for 16 core licenses for Windows Server 2022 Datacenter edition and $1,069 for 16 core licenses for Windows Server 2022 Standard edition.These pricesare suggested retail prices and may vary depending on the reseller2

Per instance licensing model is a licensing model that requires a license for each instance of Windows that runs on a host machine or a VM. Per instance licensing model is available for Windows Server 2022 Essentials edition and some older versions of Windows Server. Per instance licensing model may offer a lower cost than per user or per core licensing model if the following conditions are met:

The host machine runs only one instance of Windows Server with low resource consumption.

The host machine does not need to run any other VMs or applications.

The host machine does not need any advanced features or functions that are available in Datacenter or Standard editions.

According to the web search results2, per instance licensing model costs $501 for one server license for Windows Server 2022 Essentials edition.This price is suggested retail price and may vary depending on the reseller2

Per concurrent user licensing model is a licensing model that allows a certain number of users to access Windows VMs at the same time, regardless of the number of devices or VMs. Per concurrent user licensing model is not available for any current version of Windows or Windows Server. Per concurrent user licensing model was available for some older versions of Windows Server Terminal Services or Remote Desktop Services, but it was discontinued due to complexity and compliance issues. Therefore, per concurrent user licensing model cannot be used for running Windows VMs on a host.

A cache battery is a battery that provides backup power to the cache memory of a disk array controller. The cache memory stores data that is waiting to be written to the disk array. If the cache battery fails, the data in the cache memory may be lost or corrupted when the power is interrupted. Verified References: [Cache battery], [Disk array controller]

A DR site is a backup site that can be used to restore business operations in case of a disaster that affects the primary site. A warm site is a DR site that has some equipment and data ready to be activated quickly, but not as fast as a hot site that has fully operational systems and data. A cold site is a DR site that has only basic infrastructure and no equipment or data. The location of a DR site is an important factor to consider when designing and implementing a DR plan. A DR site that is too close to the primary site may be affected by the same disaster, such as a power outage, a flood, or an earthquake. A DR site that is too far away from the primary site may incur higher costs and latency issues. Therefore, a good practice is to set up a DR site that is geographically located in another region that has different risk factors and environmental conditions than the primary site. This can help ensure that the DR site is available and accessible when needed.References: https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 3.3)

To calculate the minimum number of disks needed for this application, we need to consider the RAID levels and their disk requirements. RAID 1 requires a minimum of two disks and provides mirroring, which means that data is duplicated on both disks. RAID 5 requires a minimum of three disks and provides striping with parity, which means that data is distributed across all disks with one disk storing parity information for error correction. RAID 5 can tolerate one disk failure without losing data. To create a 10GB RAID 1 array for log files, we need two 10GB disks. To create a 20GB RAID 5 array for data files, we need four 10GB disks (three for data and one for parity). To create a 20GB RAID 5 array for the operating system, we need another four 10GB disks (three for data and one for parity). Therefore, the total number of disks needed is 2 + 4 + 4 = 10. However, since we can use different RAID levels for different partitions on the same disk, we can optimize the disk usage by using only eight disks as follows: Disk 1: 10GB RAID 1 (log files) + 10GB RAID 5 (data files) Disk 2: 10GB RAID 1 (log files) + 10GB RAID 5 (data files) Disk 3: 10GB RAID 5 (data files) + 10GB RAID 5 (OS) Disk 4: 10GB RAID 5 (data files) + 10GB RAID 5 (OS) Disk 5: 10GB RAID 5 (parity for data files) + 10GB RAID 5 (OS) Disk 6: 10GB RAID 5 (OS) + unused space Disk 7: 10GB RAID 5 (parity for OS) + unused space Disk 8: unused space References:https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels

Disposal is the part of the asset life cycle that can cause the greatest number of issues in relation to PII exposure. PII stands for personally identifiable information, which is any data that can be used to identify a specific individual, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, etc. PII exposure is the unauthorized access or disclosure of PII, which can result in identity theft, fraud, or other harms to the individuals whose data is compromised. Disposal is the process of getting rid of an asset that is no longer needed or useful, such as a server, a hard drive, or a mobile device. If the disposal is not done properly, the PII stored on the asset may still be accessible or recoverable by unauthorized parties, such as hackers, thieves, or competitors. Therefore, it is important to follow best practices for secure disposal of assets that contain PII, such as wiping, encrypting, shredding, or physically destroying the data storage media

According to the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology, the fourth step is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution1. The best practice is to test each solution individually to determine the root cause, rolling back the changes in between each test. This way, the technician can isolate the cause and avoid introducing new problems or making the situation worse. Testing each solution in succession and restoring the server from the latest snapshot (D) is not a good option because it may not identify the root cause and may overwrite important data. Implementing the shortest solution first to identify the issue and minimize downtime © is also not a good option because it may not solve the problem or may create new issues. Consulting internet forums to determine which is the most commoncause and deploy only that solution (A) is not a good option because it may not apply to the specific situation or may be outdated or inaccurate

The first thing that a technician should verify before decommissioning and wiping a file server is non-utilization, which means that no one is using or accessing the server or its data. This can be done by checking logs, monitoring network traffic, or contacting users or stakeholders. Non-utilization ensures that decommissioning and wiping will not cause any data loss or disruption to business operations. Verified References: [Server Decommissioning Checklist]

A crash cart is a mobile device that consists of a monitor, a keyboard, a mouse, and a network connection. It can be used to access a physical server that is not responding to remote management software or does not have out-of-band management cards configured. The technician can connect the crash cart to the server using a VGA or HDMI cable and troubleshoot the server locally. Verified References: [Crash cart], [Out-of-band management]

The most likely cause of this failure is that both power supplies were connected to the same power feed, which means that they both lost power when utility power was lost. To prevent this from happening, redundant power supplies should be connected to different power feeds, preferably from different sources, such as a UPS or a generator. Verified References: [Redundant Power Supply Best Practices]

Fibre Channel is a connectivity option that can transmit at 16Gb over an optical connection for SAN-based shared storage. Fibre Channel is a high-speed network technology that provides reliable and secure data transfer betweenservers and storage devices. Fibre Channel uses optical fiber cables to connect devices and supports various topologies and protocols. FCoE is another connectivity option that uses Fibre Channel over Ethernet, which encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet packets. FCoE can also transmit at 16Gb over an optical connection, but it requires a converged network adapter (CNA) and a lossless Ethernet network. iSCSI is another connectivity option that uses SCSI commands over IP networks, which can use either copper or optical cables. iSCSI can transmit at 10Gb or 40Gb over an optical connection, but it has higher latency and lower performance than Fibre Channel. eSATA is another connectivity option that uses SATA commands over external cables, which are usually copper. eSATA can transmit at 6Gb over a copper connection, but it has limited cable length and device support compared to Fibre Channel. References:

https://www.ibm.com/topics/storage-area-network

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1369/fibre-channel-fc

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1368/fibre-channel-over-ethernet-fcoe

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1367/internet-small-computer-system-interface-iscsi

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1366/external-serial-advanced-technology-attachment-esata

Port 53 is the standard port for DNS (Domain Name System) queries and responses. DNS is a service that translates domain names (such as www.example.com) into IP addresses (such as 192.0.2.1) and vice versa. DNS is essential for internet connectivity, as it allows users and applications to access websites and other online resources by using human-readable names instead ofnumerical addresses1.

The DNSSrv server is a DNS server that provides name resolution for the corporate network. If port 53 is blocked on this server, it will not be able to communicate with other DNS servers or clients, and the name resolution will fail. This will prevent users from accessing any websites or online services that rely on domain names, such as web browsers, email clients, or cloud applications. Therefore, port 53 must remain open on DNSSrv to allow DNS traffic to flow.