2016-FRR GARP Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)
Prepare effectively for your GARP 2016-FRR Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.
By foreign exchange market convention, spot foreign exchange transactions are to be exchanged at the spot date based on the following settlement rule:
Most loans and deposits in the interbank market have a maturity of:
A risk manager analyzes a long position with a USD 10 million value. To hedge the portfolio, it seeks to use options that decrease JPY 0.50 in value for every JPY 1 increase in the long position. At first approximation, what is the overall exposure to USD depreciation?
Which one of the following four option types has two strike prices?
An options trader is assessing the aggregate risk of her currency options exposures. As an options buyer, she can potentially ___ lose more than the premium originally paid. As an option seller, however, she has a ___ risk on the contract and always receives a premium.
Which one of the following four exotic option types has another option as its underlying asset, and as a result of its construction is generally believed to be very difficult to model?
ThetaBank has extended substantial financing to two mortgage companies, which these mortgage lenders use to finance their own lending. Individually, each of the mortgage companies have an exposure at default (EAD) of $20 million, with a loss given default (LGD) of 100%, and a probability of default of 10%. ThetaBank's risk department predicts the joint probability of default at 5%. If the default risk of these mortgage companies were modeled as independent risks, the actual probability would be underestimated by:
A risk manager is analyzing a call option on the GBP with a vega of 0.02. When the perceived future volatility increases by 1%, the call option
Beta Insurance Company is only allowed to invest in investment grade bonds. To maximize the interest income, Beta Insurance Company should invest in bonds with which of the following ratings?
ThetaBank has extended substantial financing to two mortgage companies, which these mortgage lenders use to finance their own lending. Individually, each of the mortgage companies has an exposure at default (EAD) of $20 million, with a loss given default (LGD) of 100%, and a probability of default of 10%. ThetaBank's risk department predicts the joint probability of default at 5%. If the default risk of these mortgage companies were modeled as independent risks, what would be the probability of a cumulative $40 million loss from these two mortgage borrowers?
According to the largest global poll of foreign exchange market participants, which one of the following four global financial institutions was the most active participant in the global foreign exchange market?
A credit associate extending a loan to an obligor suspects that the obligor may change his behavior after the loan has been originated. The obligor in this case may use the loan proceeds for purposes not sanctioned by the lender, thereby increasing the risk of default. Hence, the credit associate must estimate the probability of default based on the assumptions about the applicability of the following tendency to this lending situation:
Which one of the following four statements correctly defines an option's delta?
Which one of the following four options does NOT represent a benefit of compensating balances to the bank?
Which of the following statements about the interest rates and option prices is correct?
To estimate the interest charges on the loan, an analyst should use one of the following four formulas:
After entering the securitization business, Delta Bank increases its cash efficiency by selling off the lower risk portions of the portfolio credit risk. This process ___ return on equity for the bank, because the cash generated by the risk-transfer and the overall ___ of the bank's exposure to the risk.
Alpha Bank determined that Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation has 2% change of default on a one-year no-payment of USD $1 million, including interest and principal repayment. The bank charges 3% interest rate spread to firms in the machinery industry, and the risk-free interest rate is 6%. Alpha Bank receives both interest and principal payments once at the end the year. Delta can only default at the end of the year. If Delta defaults, the bank expects to lose 50% of its promised payment. What interest rate should Alpha Bank charge on the no-payment loan to Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation?
Alpha Bank determined that Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation has 2% change of default on a one-year no-payment of USD $1 million, including interest and principal repayment. The bank charges 3% interest rate spread to firms in the machinery industry, and the risk-free interest rate is 6%. Alpha Bank receives both interest and principal payments once at the end the year. Delta can only default at the end of the year. If Delta defaults, the bank expects to lose 50% of its promised payment.
What may happen to the Delta's initial credit parameter and the value of its loan if the machinery industry experiences adverse structural changes?
To manage its credit portfolio, Beta Bank can directly sell the following portfolio elements:
I. Bonds
II. Marketable loans
III. Credit card loans