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IIA-CIA-Part2 IIA Practice of Internal Auditing Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Practice of Internal Auditing certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 747 questions

Which of the following documents are internal auditors most likely to be asked to sign as a demonstration of due professional care?

A.

A description of their job responsibilities.

B.

A non-disclosure agreement

C.

An annual declaration of commitment to The HAs Code of Ethics.

D.

The internal audit charter

According to IIA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason to implement environmental and social safeguards within an organization?

A.

To enable Triple Bottom Line reporting capability.

B.

To facilitate the conduct of risk assessment

C.

To achieve and maintain sustainable development.

D.

To fulfill regulatory and compliance requirements.

During the review of an organization's retail fraud deterrence program, an employee mentions that an expensive fraud surveillance information system is rarely used. The internal auditor concludes that additional staff are required to properly utilize the system to its full potential. According to IIA guidance, which criteria for evidence is most lacking to reach this conclusion?

A.

Sufficiency.

B.

Reliability.

C.

Relevancy.

D.

Usefulness.

Which of the following is the primary purpose of implementing a program whereby employees are rotated from other parts of the organization into the internal audit activity?

A.

It provides the internal audit activity with more resourcing options to meet the audit plan

B.

It offers internal auditors the opportunity to learn more about other work areas.

C.

It gives nonauditors a better understanding of the control environment.

D.

It provides an opportunity for the recruitment of employees as permanent internal auditors

The head of customer service asked the chief audit executive (CAE) whether eternal auditors could assist her staff with conducting a risk self-assessment in the customer service department. The CAE promised to meet with customer service managers analyze relevant business processes, and come up with a proposal. Who is most likely to be the final approver of the engagement objectives and scope?

A.

Senior management of the organization

B.

The chief audit executive

C.

The head of customer service

D.

The board of directors

During an audit of the human resources department, an internal auditor adopts benchmarking to test the employee turnover rate. How should the internal auditor apply this technique?

A.

Compare turnover m the organization to published turnover rates of peer organizations.

B.

Compare turnover in one period with turnover in the previous period in the organization

C.

Compare turnover in the period to total employees in the organization

D.

Compare turnover with the auditor's general knowledge of the organization

Which of the following is a justifiable reason for omitting advance client notice when planning an audit engagement?

A.

Advance notice may result in management making corrections to reduce the number of potential deficiencies.

B.

Previous management action plans addressing prior internal audit recommendations remain incomplete.

C.

The engagement includes audit assurance procedures such as sensitive or restricted asset verifications.

D.

The audit engagement has already been communicated and approved through the annual audit plan.

An internal audit report includes a recommendation to remove inappropriate user access to an IT application. Which of the following does the recommendation represent?

A.

An agreed action adopted by management.

B.

A condition-based recommendation as an interim solution to correct a current condition.

C.

A cause-based recommendation to prevent inappropriate access being granted again.

D.

A management action plan.

The final internal audit report should be distributed to which of the following individuals?

A.

Audit client management only

B.

Executive management only

C.

Audit client management, executive management, and others approved by the chief audit executive.

D.

Audit client management, executive management, and any those who request a copy.

According to the IIA guidance, which of the following foes the engagement work test in a review in a review of an organization al process?

A.

Process objectives

B.

Process risks

C.

Process controls

D.

Process scope

Which statement best describes the benefit of using workpapers from recent internal audit engagements of the area under review to plan new engagements?

A.

Recent workpapers can help during the planning of a new engagement to understand any corrective actions taken by management to address previous engagement observations.

B.

Tests described in recent workpapers can be copied into the new workpapers to save time from reperforming a risk assessment.

C.

Recent workpapers serve as the best source for identification of the risks to be examined in the new engagement.

D.

The new engagement scope can be derived from recent workpapers to ensure the reperformance of engagement procedures.

An internal auditor discovered that sales contracts with business clients were not stored in the electronic document management database instead they were scanned and saved in a nonsystematic manner to server folders Which of the following would be an appropriate consequence for the internal auditor to include in the documented observation?

A.

The document management policy requires business client data to be stored in a specific management database

B.

Sales contracts were stored improperly because the office manager was not trained to use the electronic database and prefers to avoid it

C.

if the organization becomes subject to litigation the agreed pricing terms and conditions of the contracts may be difficult to prove

D.

All staff should be appropriately trained and required to follow the organization's established policies and procedures pertaining to document management

An auditor reviews tender results for the procurement of construction equipment. Based on her significant experience the auditor believes that the obtained bid prices are too high. Which of the following is required to develop a relevant conclusion?

A.

Description of the procurement policy

B.

Summary of the tendering process

C.

Substantiated and comparative evidence

D.

Impact analysis of unfavorable prices

Which of the following statements is true regarding risk assessments, including the evaluation and prioritization of risk and control factors?

A.

A risk-by-process matrix enables the user to determine associations between any of the processes and the risks.

B.

The risk-factor approach for linking business processes and risks is more direct than the use of a risk-by-process matrix.

C.

Internal risk factors are built into the environment and the nature of the process itself.

D.

A risk map is used primarily to depict which risks will be reduced and which will be shared.

Which of the following is an advantage of utilizing an external fraud specialist in a suspected fraud investigation?

A.

increased access to the organization's employees.

B.

Increased ability to preserve evidence and the chain of command.

C.

Increased ability to scrutinize the organization's key business processes.

D.

increased access to the organization's software and proprietary data.

At the conclusion of a quality assurance review, the chief audit executive (CAE) was informed that several audits included incomplete workpapers, and some workpapers were not completed within the established timeframe. How should the CAE address the issue of incomplete workpapers?

A.

Delete incomplete workpapers from the audit folder.

B.

Establish a task force to complete workpapers for audits that are contested.

C.

Develop guidelines and procedures for completing workpapers.

D.

Verify that the workpapers that support audit findings are complete; if so, no further action is required.

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action to be taken by the chief executive (CAE) if management refuses to accept audit recommendations and implement corrective actions, Even after escalation to senior management?

A.

The CAE should continue to meet with management to obtain their agreement for corrective action

B.

The CAE should note in the final report that management has decided to accept the risk.

C.

The CAE should ask that additional testing be undertaken to strengthen his case as to the need for corrective action.

D.

The CAE should advise senior management of his intention to escalate the matter to the board.

Which of the following is required to classify, label, organize, and search big data stored and used in an organization?

A.

Metadata

B.

Data security

C.

A business application

D.

Data owner

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities are typically primary objectives of engagement supervision?

A.

Enable training and development of staff, identify engagement objectives, and assign responsibilities to individual auditors.

B.

Identify engagement objectives, assign responsibilities to individual auditors, and approve the engagement program.

C.

Assign responsibilities to individual auditors, approve the engagement program, and enable training and development of staff.

D.

Approve the engagement program, enable training and development of staff, and identify engagement objectives

An internal auditor was assigned to review controls in the accounts payable function. Most of tie accounts payable processes are performed by a third-party service provider. The auditor included in the audit report a number of control deficiencies involving processes performed by the service provider. The service provider requested a copy of the report Which of Vie following would be the most appropriate response from the chief audit executive (CAE)?

A.

The CAE would automatically sand a copy of the report to the service provider as many of the findings relate to Via area managed by the service provider

B.

The CAE may distribute the report to tie service provider at no cost, after consulting with legal counsel and tie chief compliance officer

C.

The CAE may provide a copy of the audit report to the service provider If an agreement & signed and the service provider agrees to reimburse the cost of the auditD, The CAE should benchmark with other organization in the industry by consorting with colleagues and distribute the report only I it is an acceptable practice m the industry

Which of the following is true regarding the monitoring of internal audit activities?

A.

The form and content of monitoring policies could vary by industry

B.

The board of directors is responsible for the establishment of monitoring polities

C.

Both large and small audit departments must have written policies on monitoring.

D.

The chief audit executive must develop all monitoring policies related to the activity

Which of the following parties is accountable for ensuring adequate support for conclusions and opinions readied by the internal audit activity while relying on external auditors' work?

A.

Board of directors

B.

External auditors

C.

Chief audit executive

D.

Senior management

What is the primary purpose of issuing a preliminary communication to management of the area under review?

A.

To build good relations with management

B.

To help management develop more responsive and timely action plans

C.

To formally report medium- and high-risk observations in writing

D.

To improve the internal audit key performance indicators

When developing the scope of an audit engagement, which of the following would the internal auditor typically not need to consider?

A.

The need and availability of automated support.

B.

The potential impact of key risks.

C.

The expected outcomes and deliverables.

D.

The operational and geographic boundaries.

According to IIA guidance, which of the following reflects a characteristic of sufficient and reliable information?

A.

The establishment of an audit approach and documentation system

B.

The standardization of workpaper terminology and notations

C.

The ability to reach consistent audit conclusions regardless of who performs the audit

D.

The application of documentation standards m an appropriate and consistent manner

An internal auditor suspects that employee turnover is unusually high at the organization's primary manufacturing plant To investigate this potential issue which of the following analytical approaches is the auditor likely to use?

A.

Ratio analysis

B.

Vertical analysis

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost-benefit analysis.

An internal auditor has discovered that duplicate payments were made to one vendor. Management has recouped the duplicate payments as a corrective action. Which of the following describes management’s action in this case?

A.

A condition-based action plan.

B.

A cause-based action plan.

C.

A root cause-based action plan.

D.

An effect-based action plan.

An internal auditor is conducting an assurance engagement. One engagement objective is to evaluate the project manager’s effectiveness at controlling project costs. Which of the following audit tests should be included in the engagement program?

A.

Prepare a bank reconciliation statement for all the bank accounts of the organization

B.

Track a sample of project payments from accounts payable to concluded agreements and authorization rights

C.

Validate the accuracy of assumptions and inputs used for calculations in the project’s feasibility model

D.

Investigate whether the budget of the project was approved timely as required by internal policies

Which of the following is an advantage of an internal audit activity coordinating with a management-defined risk universe?

A.

Increased completeness, including risk categories like political, supplier, and social media.

B.

Business managers can identify and assess risks that occur within each category.

C.

The internal audit activity can rely on management's risk assessment.

D.

Organizationwide audits are required since risk events within categories occur in many different ways.

In which of the following situations would an internal control questionnaire best suit the internal auditor's purpose?

A.

The auditor wants to receive mid-level management insight on how to improve hiring practices

B.

The auditor wants to obtain information on whether adherence to approval matrices is actually taking place in different maintenance units.

C.

The auditor wants to gain assurance that inventory counts are conducted in accordance with established procedures.

D.

The auditor wants to assess whether different subsidiaries apply centrally established procurement rules in the same manner

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Total 747 questions
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