CSSLP ISC Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Following are the different types of policies: Regulatory: This type of policy ensures that the organization is following standards set by specific industry regulations. This policy type is very detailed and specific to a type of industry. This is used in financial institutions, health care facilities, public utilities, and other government-regulated industries, e.g., TRAI. Advisory: This type of policy strongly advises employees regarding which types of behaviors and activities should and should not take place within the organization. It also outlines possible ramifications if employees do not comply with the established behaviors and activities. This policy type can be used, for example, to describe how to handle medical information, handle financial transactions, or process confidential information. Informative: This type of policy informs employees of certain topics. It is not an enforceable policy, but rather one to teach individuals about specific issues relevant to the company. It could explain how the company interacts with partners, the company's goals and mission, and a general reporting structure in different situations. Answer: B is incorrect. No such type of policy exists.

Graybox testing is a combination of whitebox testing and blackbox testing. In graybox testing, the test engineer is equipped with the knowledge of system and designs test cases or test data based on system knowledge. The security tester typically performs graybox testing to find vulnerabilities in software and network system. Answer: C is incorrect. Whitebox testing is a testing technique in which an organization provides full knowledge about the infrastructure to the testing team. The information, provided by the organization, often includes network diagrams, source codes, and IP addressing information of the infrastructure to be tested. Answer: A is incorrect. Integration testing is a logical extension of unit testing. It is performed to identify the problems that occur when two or more units are combined into a component. During integration testing, a developer combines two units that have already been tested into a component, and tests the interface between the two units. Although integration testing can be performed in various ways, the following three approaches are generally used: The top-down approach The bottom-up approach The umbrella approach Answer: B is incorrect. Regression testing can be performed any time when a program needs to be modified either to add a feature or to fix an error. It is a process of repeating Unit testing and Integration testing whenever existing tests need to be performed again along with the new tests. Regression testing is performed to ensure that no existing errors reappear, and no new errors are introduced.

The following are the effects of loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability in a high level potential impact: It might cause a severe degradation in or loss of mission capability to an extent. It might result in a major damage to organizational assets. It might result in a major financial loss. It might result in severe harms such as serious life threatening injuries or loss of life.

The Certification and Accreditation (C&A) process consists of four distinct phases: 1.Initiation 2.Security Certification 3.Security Accreditation 4.Continuous Monitoring The C&A activities can be applied to an information system at appropriate phases in the system development life cycle by selectively tailoring the various tasks and subtasks. Answer: B and C are incorrect. Auditing and detection are not phases of the Certification and Accreditation process.

You will most probably find this information in the Service Level Agreement document. Amongst other information, SLA contains information about the agreed Service Hours and maintenance slots for any particular Service. Service Level Agreement (frequently abbreviated as SLA) is a part of a service contract where the level of service is formally defined. In practice, the term SLA is sometimes used to refer to the contracted delivery time (of the service) or performance. Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a negotiated agreement between two parties where one is the customer and the other is the service provider. This can be a legally binding formal or informal 'contract'. Contracts between the Service Provider and other third parties are often (incorrectly) called SLAs, as the level of service has been set by the (principal) customer there can be no 'agreement' between third parties (these agreements are simply a 'contract'). Operating Level Agreements or OLA(s) however, may be used by internal groups to support SLA (s).

Answer: B is incorrect. Release Policy is a set of rules for deploying releases into the live operational environment, defining different approaches for releases depending on their urgency and impact. Answer: C is incorrect. The Service Level Requirements document contains the requirements for a service from the client viewpoint, defining detailed service level targets, mutual responsibilities, and other requirements specific to a certain group of customers. Answer: D is incorrect. Underpinning Contract (UC) is a contract between an IT service provider and a third party. In another way, it is an agreement between the IT organization and an external provider about the delivery of one or more services. The third party provides services that support the delivery of a service to a customer. The Underpinning Contract defines targets and responsibilities that are required to meet agreed Service Level targets in an SLA.

The various patterns applicable to aspects of authentication in the Web applications are as follows: Account lockout: It implements a limit on the incorrect password attempts to protect an account from automated password-guessing attacks. Authenticated session: It allows a user to access more than one access-restricted Web page without re-authenticating every page. It also integrates user authentication into the basic session model. Password authentication: It provides protection against weak passwords, automated password-guessing attacks, and mishandling of passwords. Password propagation: It offers a choice by requiring that a user's authentication credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that user's data. Answer: B and C are incorrect. Secure assertion and partitioned application patterns are applicable to software assurance in general.

The Federal Information Security Management Act of 2002 ("FISMA", 44 U.S.C. 3541, et seq.) is a United States federal law enacted in 2002 as Title III of the E-Government Act of 2002 (Pub.L. 107-347, 116 Stat. 2899). The act recognized the importance of information security to the economic and national security interests of the United States. The act requires each federal agency to develop, document, and implement an agency-wide program to provide information security for the information and information systems that support the operations and assets of the agency, including those provided or managed by another agency, contractor, or other source. FISMA has brought attention within the federal government to cybersecurity and explicitly emphasized a "risk-based policy for cost-effective security". FISMA requires agency program officials, chief information officers, and inspectors general (IGs) to conduct annual reviews of the agency's information security program and report the results to Office of Management and Budget (OMB). OMB uses this data to assist in its oversight responsibilities and to prepare this annual report to Congress on agency compliance with the act. Answer: C is incorrect. The Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA) is a United States law (codified at 15 U.S.C. 1691 et seq.), enacted in 1974, that makes it unlawful for any creditor to discriminate against any applicant, with respect to any aspect of a credit transaction, on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age; to the fact that all or part of the applicant's income derives from a public assistance program; or to the fact that the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The law applies to any person who, in the ordinary course of business, regularly participates in a credit decision, including banks, retailers, bankcard companies, finance companies, and credit unions. Answer: B is incorrect. The Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986 (ECPA Pub. L. 99-508, Oct. 21, 1986, 100 Stat. 1848, 18 U.S.C. 2510) was enacted by the United States Congress to extend government restrictions on wire taps from telephone calls to include transmissions of electronic data by computer. Specifically, ECPA was an amendment to Title III of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 (the Wiretap Statute), which was primarily designed to prevent unauthorized government access to private electronic communications. The ECPA also added new provisions prohibiting access to stored electronic communications, i.e., the Stored Communications Act,18 U.S.C. 2701-2712. Answer: D is incorrect. The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) is an American federal law (codified at 15 U.S.C. 1681 et seq.) that regulates the collection, dissemination, and use of consumer information, including consumer credit information. Along with the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA), it forms the base of consumer credit rights in the United States. It was originally passed in 1970, and is enforced by the US Federal Trade Commission.

The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) that occurs due to a threat can be calculated by multiplying the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) with the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) X Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency in which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollars that is assigned to a single event. SLE can be calculated by the following formula: SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate Single Loss Expectancy (SLE).

Confidentiality is a term that refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access. Administrators can provide confidentiality by encrypting data. Symmetric encryption is a relatively fast encryption method. Hence, this method of encryption is best suited for encrypting large amounts of data such as files on a computer. Answer: A is incorrect. Integrity ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data. Answer: C is incorrect. Auditing is used to track user accounts for file and object access, logon attempts, system shutdown etc. This enhances the security of the network. Before enabling auditing, the type of event to be audited should be specified in the Audit Policy in User Manager for Domains.

Failure transparency is the best level of exception safety. In this level, operations are succeeded with full guarantee and fulfill all needs in the presence of exceptional situations. Failure transparency does not throw the exception further up even when an exception occurs. This level is also known as no throw guarantee.

The various SSE-CMM levels are described in the table below:

A simulation test is a method used to test the disaster recovery plans. It operates just like a structured walk-through test. In the simulation test, the members of a disaster recovery team present with a disaster scenario and then, discuss on appropriate responses. These suggested responses are measured and some of them are taken by the team. The range of the simulation test should be defined carefully for avoiding excessive disruption of normal business activities. Answer: A is incorrect. The structured walk-through test is also known as the table-top exercise. In structured walk-through test, the team members walkthrough the plan to identify and correct weaknesses and how they will respond to the emergency scenarios by stepping in the course of the plan. It is the most effective and competent way to identify the areas of overlap in the plan before conducting more challenging training exercises. Answer: B is incorrect. A full-interruption test includes the operations that shut down at the primary site and are shifted to the recovery site according to the disaster recovery plan. It operates just like a parallel test. The full-interruption test is very expensive and difficult to arrange. Sometimes, it causes a major disruption of operations if the test fails. Answer: C is incorrect. A parallel test includes the next level in the testing procedure, and relocates the employees to an alternate recovery site and implements site activation procedures. These employees present with their disaster recovery responsibilities as they would for an actual disaster. The disaster recovery sites have full responsibilities to conduct the day-to-day organization's business.

The Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC), or Software Development Life Cycle in systems engineering, information systems, and software engineering, is the process of creating or altering the systems; and the models and methodologies that people use to develop these systems. The concept generally refers to computers or information systems. The following are the five phases in a generic System Development Life Cycle: 1.Initiation 2.Development/acquisition 3.Implementation 4.Operation/maintenance 5.Disposal

The configuration management system ensures that proposed changes to the project's scope are reviewed and evaluated for their affect on the project's product. Configuration Management System is a subsystem of the overall project management system. It is a collection of formal documented procedures used to identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a product, result, service, or component of the project. It also controls any changes to such characteristics, and records and reports each change and its implementation status. It includes the documentation, tracking systems, and defined approval levels necessary for authorizing and controlling changes. Audits are performed as part of configuration management to determine if the requirements have been met. Answer: B is incorrect. The scope change control system focuses on reviewing the actual changes to the project scope. When a change to the project's scope is proposed, the configuration management system is also invoked. Answer: C is incorrect. The cost change control system is responsible for reviewing and controlling changes to the project costs. Answer: D is incorrect. Integrated change control examines the affect of a proposed change on the project as a whole.

The credit card issuing company has violated the Privacy law. According to the Internet Privacy law, a company cannot provide their customer's financial and personal details to other companies. Answer: A is incorrect. Trademark laws facilitate the protection of trademarks around the world. Answer: B is incorrect. There is no law such as Security law. Answer: D is incorrect. The Copyright law protects original works or creations of authorship including literary, dramatic, musical, artistic, and certain other intellectual works.

A Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollar ($) that is assigned to a single event. The SLE can be calculated by the following formula: SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE). The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) can be calculated by multiplying the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) with the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) X Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency in which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur.

The Phase 1 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the C&A level of effort, identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. The Phase 1 starts with the input of the mission need. This phase comprises three process activities: Document mission need Registration Negotiation Answer: D is incorrect. Initial Certification Analysis is a Phase 2 activity.

Only acceptance is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events. Often sharing is used for low probability and low impact risk events regardless of the positive or negative effects the risk event may bring the project. Acceptance response is a part of Risk Response planning process. Acceptance response delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance response can be of two types: Passive acceptance: It is a strategy in which no plans are made to try or avoid or mitigate the risk. Active acceptance: Such responses include developing contingency reserves to deal with risks, in case they occur. Acceptance is the only response for both threats and opportunities. Answer: C is incorrect. Sharing is a positive risk response that shares an opportunity for all parties involved in the risk event. Answer: B is incorrect. Transference is a negative risk event that transfers the risk ownership to a third party, such as vendor, through a contractual relationship. Answer: D is incorrect. Mitigation is a negative risk event that seeks to lower the probability and/or impact of a risk event.

Use a consistent coding style is one of the principles and practices that contribute to defensive coding. This principle defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it. For this purpose, all programmers of a team must follow the same guidelines. Answer: D is incorrect. Keep code simple and small defines that it is easy to verify the software security when a programmer uses small and simple code base. Answer: A is incorrect. Make code forward and backward traceable defines that traceability is necessary in order to validate requirements, prevent defects, and find and solve inconsistencies among all objects generated in the SDLC phases. Answer: B is incorrect. Review code during and after coding defines that code must be examined in order to identify coding errors in modules.