ATM ISTQB Advanced Test Management Exam v 3.0 – ISTQB Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Context Analysis:

With limited time, testing all low-risk elements is not feasible. Depth testing on a representative low-risk element helps assess potential residual risk efficiently.

Evaluation of Options:

A. Automate the testing of the untested elements to ensure they are covered:

Incorrect. There isn’t enough time to implement automation.

B. Block the go-live and start testing the low-risk elements immediately:

Incorrect. Blocking the release may not be acceptable if high and medium risks are already mitigated.

C. Transfer the risk of the untested low-risk items to the help desk:

Incorrect. While a potential fallback, it doesn’t address residual risk proactively.

D. Select one of the low-risk elements and perform depth testing to assess the residual risk:

Correct. This provides quick insights into potential risks and helps make an informed go/no-go decision.

Syllabus Alignment:

ISTQB emphasizes prioritizing risk mitigation through targeted testing (TM-1.3.4).

References:

ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-1.3.4)​

Context Analysis:

The manager perceives conservative estimates as overly negative. The goal is to balance optimism with realism to satisfy both the team and the manager.

Three-point estimation provides a range of estimates: optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely, addressing the need for a positive yet realistic projection.

Evaluation of Options:

A. Wideband Delphi:

Involves group-based estimation using consensus techniques. While reliable, it does not explicitly offer optimistic vs. realistic estimates.

B. Planning Poker:

Often used in Agile projects, this technique involves relative estimation but does not inherently provide optimistic and pessimistic figures.

C. Three-point estimation:

Correct. Combines optimistic, pessimistic, and realistic estimates to calculate a weighted average. This allows presentation of both realistic and “positive” numbers to the manager.

D. Extrapolation:

Based on past data trends but does not offer a range of estimates or a way to address manager concerns directly.

Syllabus Alignment:The ISTQB syllabus mentions estimation methods like three-point estimation as effective techniques for providing balanced and transparent project timelines (TM-2.2.1).

References:

ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus​

Competence Analysis:

Professional competence refers to the knowledge and skills related to the specific domain, in this case, Salesforce.

The client's requirement emphasizes expertise in Salesforce, which your team lacks.

Evaluation of Options:

A(Social competence) andB(Personal competence) focus on interpersonal skills and attitude, not domain knowledge.

C(Methodical competence) involves creating test cases, which is unrelated to the issue described.

Dis correct as the team lacks the required Salesforce-specific professional competence.

References and Syllabus Alignment:

Professional competence is highlighted under "Test Team Competencies" (TM-3.1.1)​​.

Understanding the IDEAL Model:

The IDEAL model (Initiating, Diagnosing, Establishing, Acting, Learning) is a framework for process improvement.

In this case, theLearningphase is missing, which involves evaluating the outcomes of implemented changes to identify what worked and what did not.

Evaluation of Options:

A(Diagnosing) andB(Establishing) refer to earlier stages of the model.

C(Acting) relates to implementing changes but does not address the lack of retrospective evaluation.

Dis correct as the problem lies in not assessing the success of past improvements.

References and Syllabus Alignment:

The IDEAL model is covered under "Improving the Testing Process" (TM-1.5.4) in the ISTQB syllabus

Purpose of Retrospectives:

Retrospectives are team meetings aimed at reflecting on the work process to identify what went well (strengths) and areas that can be improved (opportunities).

This aligns with continuous process improvement practices.

Evaluation of Options:

A(Everyone shakes hands) is trivial and not a core activity.

B(Reviewing data collection methods) may be part of broader discussions but is not the primary focus.

Cis correct because it directly reflects retrospective goals.

D(Brainstorming solutions) typically occurs in follow-up sessions, not during the retrospective itself.

References and Syllabus Alignment:

Retrospective practices are emphasized in "Improving the Test Process" (TM-1.5.4) in the syllabus​​.

Dealing with Tight Schedules:

Prioritization based on quality risk ensures critical areas are tested, minimizing risks to the project.

In tight schedules, testing everything is impractical; focus must shift to high-risk areas.

Evaluation of Options:

Ais unlikely feasible given the tight schedule.

Bhighlights the issue but does not propose a solution.

C(developing automation) is not possible given time constraints.

Dis correct because risk-based testing ensures the best possible outcome within the constraints.

References and Syllabus Alignment:

Risk-based testing is a core concept under "Test Process and Risk Management" in ISTQB syllabus (TM-1.3.1, TM-1.3.4)​​​.

Context Analysis:

The test strategy defines thContext Analysis:

Monitoring code coverage is inherently tied to knowledge of the internal structure of the software, a characteristic of white-box testing.

Evaluation of Options:

A. Black-box:

Incorrect. Black-box testing focuses on functionality without knowledge of internal structures.

B. White-box:

Correct. White-box testing uses internal code knowledge to determine areas that need more coverage.

C. Functional:

Incorrect. Functional testing assesses functionality without inspecting internal code.

D. Non-functional:

Incorrect. Non-functional testing focuses on performance, usability, etc., not code coverage.

Syllabus Alignment:

ISTQB associates code coverage monitoring with white-box testing techniques (TM-1.2.6).

References:

ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-1.2.6)​

approach, resources, and processes for testing within an organization. It provides insight into the testing context.

Evaluation of Options:

A. The organizational test strategy:

Correct. It offers a comprehensive understanding of the organization's testing framework.

B. Stakeholder organization chart:

Incorrect. Useful for identifying roles but does not provide a testing context.

C. The schedule:

Incorrect. Reflects timelines but not testing approaches or resources.

D. The budget:

Incorrect. Indicates financial constraints but not the testing context.

Syllabus Alignment:

ISTQB emphasizes using the organizational test strategy to understand the testing context (TM-1.4.1).

References:

ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-1.4.1)​

Context Analysis:The question involves integrating an existing test automation framework into a CI/CD pipeline. The integration requires modifications to the framework and results reporting. This aligns with ISTQB Advanced Test Management concepts focusing on evaluating and adapting test tools for specific project needs (Syllabus reference: TM-1.6.1 and TM-1.6.4).

Evaluation of Options:

A. Investigation that the tool will be fit for purpose:

Correct. Before integrating the framework, a thorough investigation is necessary to confirm whether the tool can support the required modifications and functionality. This aligns with the emphasis on ensuring tools meet both current and future needs as per the ISTQB syllabus section TM-1.6.1​​​.

B. Training regarding how to make the framework modifications so the integration is possible:

Incorrect. While training might be useful later, it is not the first step or the primary requirement to ensure the integration is feasible.

C. A review to determine if this is the best tool to use for the integration with the CI/CD pipeline:

Incorrect. This step might be relevant in an earlier phase of tool selection, but the question assumes the tool has already been chosen.

D. Investigation of the licensing models of the tool and an understanding of any potential costs:

Incorrect. Licensing investigation is part of tool selection and budgeting, not directly related to technical integration feasibility.

Syllabus Alignment:The ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management syllabus emphasizes the importance of ensuring the selected tools and technologies align with organizational requirements and technical feasibility. This is outlined in the "Test Tools" section of the syllabus (TM-1.6.1, TM-1.6.4).

Conclusion:The correct answer isA. Investigation that the tool will be fit for purpose, as this stepensures the technical requirements for integration are met before proceeding with modifications or training.

References:

ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-1.6.1 and TM-1.6.4)​​​

ISTQB CTAL-TM Sample Exam Questions​​

ISTQB CTAL-TM Sample Exam Answers​

Definition:

Test control involves monitoring and taking actions to align testing with objectives, addressing deviations in test progress or outcomes.

Evaluation of Options:

A. To monitor the testing:

Incorrect. Monitoring is part of the process but does not define the purpose of test control.

B. To return the test environment to its starting state and data:

Incorrect. This pertains to test environment setup or cleanup, not test control.

C. To project detect trends and outcomes:

Incorrect. Detecting trends is part of monitoring, not control.

D. To take corrective actions required to meet the test objectives:

Correct. Test control is proactive, focusing on corrective measures to ensure test objectives are met (Syllabus section TM-1.5.3).

References:

ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus​​​=========================

Context Analysis:

Agile emphasizes efficiency and collaboration. If a defect is quickly resolved within the same iteration, documenting it formally may not add value.

Evaluation of Options:

A. Never:

Incorrect. Agile allows flexibility; not all defects require formal reports.

B. If the defect can be fixed in the same iteration in which it was found:

Correct. Aligns with Agile principles of immediacy and adaptability, minimizing overhead (Syllabus section TM-1.2.4).

C. If the defect can be fixed in a later hardening sprint:

Incorrect. Documentation is needed if a defect remains unresolved within the iteration.

D. If the defect must be fixed by another team:

Incorrect. Clear documentation is critical for external team collaboration.

Syllabus Alignment:ISTQB Advanced Test Management highlights Agile principles, including flexibility in defect reporting based on project needs (TM-1.2.4).

References:

ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus​

Context Analysis:

The developers claim many defect reports are invalid. Reviewing defects that are rejected or closed without fixes can highlight issues like incorrect environment setup or missed testing steps.

Evaluation of Options:

A. In the ones that are stuck in the In Progress state:

Incorrect. These defects are still being investigated, not confirmed as invalid.

B. In the ones that are Resolved but not Closed:

Incorrect. These defects have been fixed but not yet verified; they are not considered invalid.

C. In the ones that are in the status Rejected or Closed without a fix:

Correct. Rejected defects are marked invalid and are directly related to the problem described.

D. In the ones with the status of Re-Opened:

Incorrect. Re-opened defects indicate recurring or unresolved issues, not invalid reports.

Syllabus Alignment:

ISTQB highlights analyzing defect statuses to improve defect reporting and management processes (TM-2.3.5).

References:

ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-2.3.5)​

Scenario Analysis:

The testing team is being augmented with an offshore team, creating potential friction and resistance due to concerns about job security.

The ambassadors’ role is critical to ensure smooth collaboration and to address the concerns of the existing team while fostering trust and communication with the offshore team.

Correct Option Justification:

Option C (Social competence and personal competence):

Social competence ensures that ambassadors can effectively communicate, build trust, and resolve conflicts between the onshore and offshore teams. This is essential for fostering collaboration and mitigating resistance.

Personal competence focuses on self-awareness, adaptability, and emotional intelligence, which are crucial for managing their team’s concerns and acting as role models for positive behavior during the transition.

Together, these competences address the interpersonal dynamics and morale issues inherent in such a situation​​.

Option A (Professional competence and methodological competence):

While valuable in other contexts, technical and methodological skills are secondary in this situation. The ambassadors’ primary role is to facilitate collaboration, not to focus on domain expertise or process methodologies​​.

Option B (Methodological competence and social competence):

Methodological competence (e.g., understanding tools and processes) is less critical here than personal competence, as the challenge is more about team dynamics and less about technical execution​.

Option D (Personal competence and professional competence):

Professional competence (e.g., domain expertise) is not the priority in addressing team resistance or fostering offshore collaboration. Social competence is more crucial to building relationships and trust​.

Key Competence Emphasis:

The ISTQB Advanced Test Management syllabus highlights the importance of social and interpersonal skills in managing stakeholder relationships, team dynamics, and cross-functional collaborations (TM-3.1.5).

Syllabus References:

The syllabus emphasizes the importance of team management and addressing concerns during organizational changes. Ambassadors need to focus on team integration, cultural adaptation, and resolving resistance to change​​.

Exam Structure Reference:

This question aligns with K2 (understanding) in the ISTQB Advanced Test Management exam, focusing on understanding the roles and skills necessary for successful team collaboration and management​.

Context Analysis:

Higher-than-expected defects in a high-risk area indicate the need for additional testing to mitigate potential impacts.

Evaluation of Options:

A. Reassess the risk with a higher likelihood number:

Incorrect. While reassessment is useful, immediate action should prioritize more testing.

B. Reassess the risk with a higher impact number:

Incorrect. The impact may already be known, and more testing is the next practical step.

C. Concentrate more testing in the area because the risk is clearly higher:

Correct. Addressing higher-than-expected defects through focused testing ensures risks are adequately mitigated.

D. Concentrate less testing in the area because the defects are already found:

Incorrect. Higher defects warrant more testing, not less.

Syllabus Alignment:

ISTQB highlights increasing test efforts in high-risk areas with higher-than-expected defect levels (TM-1.3.4).

References:

ISTQB Advanced Level Test Management Syllabus (TM-1.3.4)​

Understanding the Defect Trend Gap:

A gap between "defects opened" and "defects closed" usually indicates defects that have been resolved (fixed) but are pending formal closure, often awaiting retesting or approval.

The trend convergence suggests the defect management process is effective, but some defects are still in the verification stage.

Evaluation of Options:

Ais incorrect: The gap does not indicate projected but unfound defects.

Cis incorrect: Regression defects would cause a divergence, not convergence, in trends.

Dis incorrect: Defects introduced to production are unrelated to the convergence.

Bis correct as it aligns with the standard defect lifecycle.

References and Syllabus Alignment:

This aligns with "Defect Management" in the ISTQB syllabus, emphasizing defect lifecycle tracking (TM-2.3.1)​​​.