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CRISC Isaca Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your Isaca CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 1641 questions

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure software engineers test patches before release to the production environment?

A.

To detect incompatibilities that might disrupt the operation

B.

To provide assurance that deployed patches have been properly authorized

C.

To understand how long it will take to deploy the patch

D.

To support availability by authorizing the release of the patch at the appropriate time

What is the PRIMARY reason to periodically review key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

Ensure compliance.

B.

Identify trends.

C.

Promote a risk-aware culture.

D.

Optimize resources needed for controls

Which of the following provides The MOST useful information when determining a risk management program's maturity level?

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

A recently reviewed risk register

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

The organization's risk framework

In which of the following system development life cycle (SDLC) phases should controls be incorporated into system specifications?

A.

Implementation

B.

Development

C.

Design

D.

Feasibility

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use key control indicators (KCIs) to evaluate control operating effectiveness?

A.

To measure business exposure to risk

B.

To identify control vulnerabilities

C.

To monitor the achievement of set objectives

D.

To raise awareness of operational issues

An organization has outsourced its ERP application to an external SaaS provider. Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to identify risk scenarios involving data loss?

A.

Data classification schemes

B.

Industry data breach reports

C.

Data storage locations

D.

Data flow documentation

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

Which of the following BEST measures the impact of business interruptions caused by an IT service outage?

A.

Sustained financial loss

B.

Cost of remediation efforts

C.

Duration of service outage

D.

Average time to recovery

During a risk assessment, a key external technology supplier refuses to provide control design and effectiveness information, citing confidentiality concerns. What should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

A.

Escalate the non-cooperation to management

B.

Exclude applicable controls from the assessment.

C.

Review the supplier's contractual obligations.

D.

Request risk acceptance from the business process owner.

Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Data integrity checking

C.

Strong authentication

D.

Intrusion detection system

Which of the following should be the MAIN consideration when validating an organization's risk appetite?

A.

Comparison against regulations

B.

Maturity of the risk culture

C.

Capacity to withstand loss

D.

Cost of risk mitigation options

Which of the following is a crucial component of a key risk indicator (KRI) to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk?

A.

Management intervention

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Board commentary

D.

Escalation triggers

An organization plans to implement a new Software as a Service (SaaS) speech-to-text solution Which of the following is MOST important to mitigate risk associated with data privacy?

A.

Secure encryption protocols are utilized.

B.

Multi-factor authentication is set up for users.

C.

The solution architecture is approved by IT.

D.

A risk transfer clause is included in the contact

A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Audit trail review

C.

Multi-factor authentication

D.

Data encryption at rest

Of the following, whose input is ESSENTIAL when developing risk scenarios for the implementation of a third-party mobile application that stores customer data?

A.

Information security manager

B.

IT vendor manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

IT compliance manager

It is MOST important that security controls for a new system be documented in:

A.

testing requirements

B.

the implementation plan.

C.

System requirements

D.

The security policy

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner’s MOST important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios?

A.

The impact of controls on the efficiency of the business in delivering services

B.

Linkage of identified risk scenarios with enterprise risk management

C.

Potential threats and vulnerabilities that may have an impact on the business

D.

Results of network vulnerability scanning and penetration testing

An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?

A.

The third party's IT operations manager

B.

The organization's process owner

C.

The third party's chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

The organization's risk practitioner

Which of the following is the MOST important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization?

A.

Implementing a risk register

B.

Defining a risk mitigation strategy and plan

C.

Assigning risk ownership

D.

Establishing executive management support

Which of the following will BEST mitigate the risk associated with IT and business misalignment?

A.

Establishing business key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Introducing an established framework for IT architecture

C.

Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Involving the business process owner in IT strategy

When assessing the maturity level of an organization's risk management framework, which of the following deficiencies should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

Unclear organizational risk appetite

B.

Lack of senior management participation

C.

Use of highly customized control frameworks

D.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods

A risk practitioner is reviewing a vendor contract and finds there is no clause to control privileged access to the organization's systems by vendor employees. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Contact the control owner to determine if a gap in controls exists.

B.

Add this concern to the risk register and highlight it for management review.

C.

Report this concern to the contracts department for further action.

D.

Document this concern as a threat and conduct an impact analysis.

During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?

A.

Data validation

B.

Identification

C.

Authentication

D.

Data integrity

Which of the following would be the result of a significant increase in the motivation of a malicious threat actor?

A.

Increase in mitigating control costs

B.

Increase in risk event impact

C.

Increase in risk event likelihood

D.

Increase in cybersecurity premium

A risk practitioner shares the results of a vulnerability assessment for a critical business application with the business manager. Which of the following is the NEXT step?

A.

Develop a risk action plan to address the findings.

B.

Evaluate the impact of the vulnerabilities to the business application.

C.

Escalate the findings to senior management and internal audit.

D.

Conduct a penetration test to validate the vulnerabilities from the findings.

The BEST criteria when selecting a risk response is the:

A.

capability to implement the response

B.

importance of IT risk within the enterprise

C.

effectiveness of risk response options

D.

alignment of response to industry standards

Which of the following is the BEST approach for obtaining management buy-in

to implement additional IT controls?

A.

List requirements based on a commonly accepted IT risk management framework.

B.

Provide information on new governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) platform functionalities.

C.

Describe IT risk impact on organizational processes in monetary terms.

D.

Present new key risk indicators (KRIs) based on industry benchmarks.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform ongoing risk assessments?

A.

Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management.

B.

New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals.

C.

The risk environment is subject to change.

D.

The information security budget must be justified.

An IT control gap has been identified in a key process. Who would be the MOST appropriate owner of the risk associated with this gap?

A.

Key control owner

B.

Operational risk manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

A.

Contracting to third parties

B.

Establishing employee awareness training

C.

Setting target dates to complete actions

D.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?

A.

Periodic assessments

B.

Change management

C.

Awareness training

D.

Policy updates

What should be the PRIMARY driver for periodically reviewing and adjusting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk likelihood

C.

Risk appropriate

D.

Control self-assessments (CSAs)

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes to the risk landscape?

A.

Internal audit reports

B.

Access reviews

C.

Threat modeling

D.

Root cause analysis

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?

A.

Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.

B.

Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.

C.

Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.

D.

Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.

Which of the following is the MOST important update for keeping the risk register current?

A.

Modifying organizational structures when lines of business merge

B.

Adding new risk assessment results annually

C.

Retiring risk scenarios that have been avoided

D.

Changing risk owners due to employee turnover

Which of the following would be the BEST way for a risk practitioner to validate the effectiveness of a patching program?

A.

Conduct penetration testing.

B.

Interview IT operations personnel.

C.

Conduct vulnerability scans.

D.

Review change control board documentation.

A control for mitigating risk in a key business area cannot be implemented immediately. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a compensating control needs to be applied?

A.

Obtain the risk owner's approval.

B.

Record the risk as accepted in the risk register.

C.

Inform senior management.

D.

update the risk response plan.

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

A.

Time between backups for critical data

B.

Sensitivity of business data involved

C.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

D.

Maximum tolerable data loss after an incident

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of updating the risk register to include outcomes from a risk assessment?

A.

It maintains evidence of compliance with risk policy.

B.

It facilitates timely risk-based decisions.

C.

It validates the organization's risk appetite.

D.

It helps to mitigate internal and external risk factors.

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Threat analysis

C.

Risk response analysis

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability?

A.

Establishing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Maintaining a current list of staff contact delays

D.

Maintaining a risk register

Which of the following conditions presents the GREATEST risk to an application?

A.

Application controls are manual.

B.

Application development is outsourced.

C.

Source code is escrowed.

D.

Developers have access to production environment.

From a risk management perspective, the PRIMARY objective of using maturity models is to enable:

A.

solution delivery.

B.

resource utilization.

C.

strategic alignment.

D.

performance evaluation.

When creating a program to manage data privacy risk, which of the following is MOST important to ensure that the program is successful?

A.

Compliance with industry frameworks

B.

Alignment with applicable legal and regulatory requirements

C.

Approval of mitigating and compensating controls

D.

Adoption of mission and vision statements

An organization's senior management is considering whether to acquire cyber insurance. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to enable management’s decision?

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

C.

Provide data on the number of risk events from the last year.

D.

Report on recent losses experienced by industry peers.

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure adequate resources will be allocated to manage identified risk?

A.

Prioritizing risk within each business unit

B.

Reviewing risk ranking methodology

C.

Promoting an organizational culture of risk awareness

D.

Assigning risk ownership to appropriate roles

Which of the following BEST enables senior management lo compare the ratings of risk scenarios?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Risk heat map

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when prioritizing risk response?

A.

Requirements for regulatory obligations.

B.

Cost of control implementation.

C.

Effectiveness of risk treatment.

D.

Number of risk response options.

An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.

B.

Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.

C.

Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.

D.

Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.

Which of the following information is MOST useful to a risk practitioner for developing IT risk scenarios?

A.

Published vulnerabilities relevant to the business

B.

Threat actors that can trigger events

C.

Events that could potentially impact the business

D.

IT assets requiring the greatest investment

Which of the following is the STRONGEST indication an organization has ethics management issues?

A.

Employees do not report IT risk issues for fear of consequences.

B.

Internal IT auditors report to the chief information security officer (CISO).

C.

Employees face sanctions for not signing the organization's acceptable use policy.

D.

The organization has only two lines of defense.

An organization's business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?

A.

Scale of technology

B.

Risk indicators

C.

Risk culture

D.

Proposed risk budget

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk priorities

D.

Risk heat maps

A risk practitioner is reporting on an increasing trend of ransomware attacks in the industry. Which of the following information is MOST important to include to enable an informed response decision by key stakeholders?

A.

Methods of attack progression

B.

Losses incurred by industry peers

C.

Most recent antivirus scan reports

D.

Potential impact of events

An organization has decided to outsource a web application, and customer data will be stored in the vendor's public cloud. To protect customer data, it is MOST important to ensure which of the following?

A.

The organization's incident response procedures have been updated.

B.

The vendor stores the data in the same jurisdiction.

C.

Administrative access is only held by the vendor.

D.

The vendor's responsibilities are defined in the contract.

Which of the following risk scenarios would be the GREATEST concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation?

A.

User access may be restricted by additional security.

B.

Unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems.

C.

Security administration may become more complex.

D.

User privilege changes may not be recorded.

A risk assessment has identified increased losses associated with an IT risk scenario. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

A.

update the risk rating.

B.

reevaluate inherent risk.

C.

develop new risk scenarios.

D.

implement additional controls.

Avoiding a business activity removes the need to determine:

A.

systemic risk

B.

residual risk

C.

inherent risk

D.

control risk

Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?

A.

Control chart

B.

Sensitivity analysis

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Decision tree

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Total 1641 questions
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