PMI-SP PMI Scheduling Professional Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

The scope baseline is not an input to the estimate activity durations process. The project's scope statement is an input, but according to the PMBOK, the scope baseline is not. The seven inputs to this process are: activity list, activity attributes, activity resource requirements, resource calendars, project scope statement, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets.

Answer options C, B, and D are incorrect. These all are an input to the estimate activity durations process.

The schedule baseline is a specific version of the project schedule developed from the schedule network analysis. It is built by networking individual work elements and verifying the path or paths with the longest total duration. That path is then compared against the project due date, or it may serve as the determinant of the project end date. Schedule baseline is a project schedule used in measuring project progress. It helps provide a comparison with the actual progress of work against the schedule and to determine if performance to date is within acceptable parameters. Any change caused by change in scope of the project invalidates the original schedule and requires a new baseline schedule.

Answer option A is incorrect. Management may impose constraints on the project, but according to the PMI, the baseline is developed from schedule network analysis.

Answer option B is incorrect. Constraints on the project typically include time, cost, and scope (among others), but the schedule baseline is only concerned with the time limits of the project.

Answer option C is incorrect. Project stakeholders are those entities within or without an organization, which: Sponsor a project or, Have an interest or a gain upon a successful completion of a project. Examples of project stakeholders include the customer, the user group, the project manager, the development team, the testers, etc. Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project completion. They may also exert influence over the project's objectives and outcomes. The project management team must identify the stakeholders, determine their requirements and expectations, and, to the extent possible, manage their influence in relation to the requirements to ensure a successful project.

The planned value is the worth of the project if it were on time. In this instance, the project should be 50 percent complete, so the planned value is half of the project budget - $2,250,000. Planned value (PV) is the authorized budget assigned to the schedule work to be accomplished for a schedule activity or work breakdown structure component. It serves as a baseline against which actual performance is measured. The theory of planned value is of vital importance to the project management team and it is important to keep careful track of this. The term planned value can also be in some situations referred to by the project management team and the project management team leader as the budgeted cost of work scheduled (BCWS).

Answer option C is incorrect. This is the budget at completion.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is the earned value for the project.

Answer option B is incorrect. There is enough information to know.

The activity attributes initially include the Activity ID, WBS ID, and the Activity Name, but it can evolve over time to include other components about the work. Activity attributes are an output of the Define Activity process. These attributes refer to the multiple components that frame up an activity. The components for each activity during the early stages of the project are the Activity ID, WBS ID, and Activity name. At the later stages, the activity attributes include Activity codes, Predecessor activity, activity description, logical relationship, successor activity, leads and lags, imposed dates, and constraints and assumptions. Activity attributes are used for schedule development and for ordering, selecting, and sorting the planned schedule activities in a number of ways within reports.

Answer option B is incorrect. A project management plan is a formal document that defines how the project is being monitored, controlled, and executed. It is not the best answer.

Answer option D is incorrect. The roles and responsibilities matrix records the work and the person to record the work, but does not offer additional information such as locale for the work, level of effort, and other information.

Answer option C is incorrect. The Schedule Management Plan defines how the schedule will be created, executed, and controlled.

Lag time is positive time that requires the successor activity to wait for a defined amount of time, such as three days, before it can begin. Lag time does not change the task relationship, but requires a "waiting time" before the starting of the activity can begin. A lag time is a delay between the predecessor and the successor tasks. Sometimes it may be needed to schedule a delay between the predecessor and the successor tasks. For example, if two coats of paint are required to paint a car, then the final coat should be applied only when the first coat dries. This delay is known as the lag time. The lag time is entered as a positive value. The lag time can be entered as a duration or as a percentage of the predecessor's task duration. It is entered on the Predecessor tab in the Task Information dialog box.

Answer option D is incorrect. Float is a natural event that is discovered through the forward pass when using the critical path method. Float cannot be arbitrarily added as lag.

Answer option C is incorrect. Lead time actually brings activities closer together and causes them, in some cases, to overlap.

Answer option B is incorrect. Management reserve is a pool of time allotted for unscheduled changes and events that affect the project duration.

Schedule data is not an input to the control schedule process. Organizational process assets are the final input to the control schedule process. The inputs of schedule control process are as follows: Project Management Plan Project Schedule Work Performance Integration Organizational Process Assets

Answer option C is incorrect. The project management plan is an input to the control schedule process.

Answer option D is incorrect. The project schedule is an input to the control schedule process.

Answer option B is incorrect. Work performance information is an input to the control schedule process.

The schedule variance can be found by subtracting the planned value from the earned value. In this instance, it is $170,370 minus $227,160. SV = 170,370 - 227,160 = -56,790 Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance on a project. The variance notifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula: SV = Earned Value (EV) - Planned Value (PV) If the resulting schedule is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is right on target.

Answer option A is incorrect. $45,789 is not a valid calculation.

Answer option D is incorrect. -$30,268 is the expected variance at completion.

Answer option C is incorrect. There is enough information to know.

The outputs to the determine budget process are as follows: Cost performance baseline: The cost performance baseline is an authorized time-phased budget at completion. Project funding requirements: The project funding requirements are determined from total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements. Project document updates: The project document updates consists of risk register, cost estimates and project schedule.

Answer option B is incorrect. Scope baseline is an input to the determine budget process.

The project charter defines the business needs, the project justification, and the current requirements for the new warehouse that an organization wants to create. The project charter is the document that formally authorizes a project. The project charter provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. According to PMBOK Guide, the project charter should address the following information: Requirements that satisfy customer, sponsor, and other stakeholder needs, wants and expectations Business needs, high-level project description, or product requirements that the project is undertaken to address Project purpose or justification Assigned Project Manager and authority level Summary milestone schedule Stakeholder influences Functional organizations and their participation Organizational, environmental and external assumptions Organizational, environmental and external constraints Business case justifying the project, including return on investment Summary budget If required, it also authorizes the next project phase, and updates the charter. The project manager should always be assigned prior to the start of planning, and preferably while the project charter is being developed.

Answer option A is incorrect. The decomposition of the project scope results in the project's Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). The work packages of the WBS will help the project manager and team create accurate time and cost estimates.

Answer option B is incorrect. The feasibility study is usually created before the project scope, though not always. This document defines the likelihood of the project being able to reach its objectives.

Answer option D is incorrect. The project scope defines all that the project should complete.

The project schedule network diagram is an output of the sequence activity process, not an input. This process uses five inputs: the activity list, the activity attributes, milestone list, the project scope statement, and the organizational process assets. The project schedule network diagram is an output of the sequence activity process. It represents a schematic display of the project's schedule activities and the logical relationship among them. This diagram can be produced manually or by using the project management software. It consists of complete project details, or one or more summary activities.

Answer options D, B and A are incorrect. These are inputs to the process.

To answer this question, you'll first need to calculate the contingency reserve. Contingency reserves are estimated costs to be used at the discretion of the project manager to deal with anticipated, but not certain, events. These events are "known unknowns" and are part of the project scope and cost baselines. The contingency reserve is calculated by multiplying the probability and the impact for the risk event value for each risk event. The sum of the risk events equals the contingency reserve for the project. The sum of the risk events equals the contingency reserve for the project. In this question, the value is $41,700. If Risk D happens, it'll cost the project $35,000. The difference of $35,000 and $41,700 is $6,700.

Answer option A is incorrect. This is the impact of Risk Event

D.

Answer option D is incorrect. $14,000 is the risk event value of Risk Event

D.

Answer option B is incorrect. $41,700 is the amount of the contingency reserve.

According to the question, you have to use the estimating technique that has a higher degree of accuracy. The most accurate estimating technique is bottom-up estimating. What is bottom-up estimating? Bottom-up is a cost estimating technique that involves estimating the cost of individual work packages or schedule activities with the lowest level of detail. The detailed cost is rolled up (or summarized) to higher levels for total project estimates. This summarized data is very useful for reporting and tracking purposes. Bottom-up estimating provides a higher degree of accuracy, provided the estimates at the work package level are accurate.

Answer options C, A, and B are incorrect. Parametric modeling and analogous estimating techniques use top-down estimation model. These are less accurate than the bottom-up estimation. What is analogous estimating? Analogous is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameter, such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous, similar activity as the basis for estimation of the same parameter for a future activity. It is a top-down estimating technique and is a form of expert judgment. It provides a lower degree of accuracy than other estimating techniques. This technique is primarily used when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project or program. What is parametric modeling? Parametric modeling is an estimating technique that uses parameters, or project characteristics, to forecast project costs. It involves a top-down approach and is similar but more accurate than analogous estimating. It uses historical data and other variables to calculate an estimate for activity parameters, such as scope, cost, budget, and duration.

A scheduler schedules the constraints for the project into phases with respect to the time and resources available. He can be hired from outside a company, or from within a company. The basic roles of a scheduler are as follows: Feasibility Planning: A scheduler is the time management expert who paints a picture of the project. He develops a strategy for delivery and to gain consensus. Execution Schedule: A scheduler works with the project team to optimize and refine the schedule until an agreed schedule has been developed. Performance Control: A schedule is maintained by the scheduler who optimizes outcomes and instructs the project team on their presentation. It is important that the scheduler be aware of the changes and trends related to the project delivery.

Answer option C is incorrect. This is the skill possessed by the project manager.

Stakeholders are interviewed and can help identify other stakeholders that should be included in the project communications.

Answer option B is incorrect. According to the PMBOK, this is not the best answer.

Answer option A is incorrect. Stakeholders are entered into a stakeholder register, not identified by it.

Answer option C is incorrect. Project customers are stakeholders.

The project termination request is not an output of the control schedule. Early termination of a project is a closing process and usually does not stem from the project manager. The outputs of the control schedule process are as follows: Work Performance Measurements: The work packages and control accounts are documented and communicated to the stakeholders. Organizational Process Assets Updates: The assets that are updated are: corrective actions chosen and the reasons, causes of variance, and other types of lessons learned from project schedule control. Change Requests: It is processed for reviews and disposition through the Perform Integrated Change Control process. Project Management Plan Updates: The elements that need to be updated are: schedule baseline, schedule management plan, cost baseline. Project Document Updates: The elements that need to be updated in project document updates are: schedule data and project schedule.

The schedule variance can be found by subtracting the planned value from the earned value. In this instance, it is

EV = (0.45 * 5,400,000)

= 2,430,000

PV = (0.50 * 5,400,000)

= 2,700,000

SV = EV - PV

= 2,430,000 - 2,700,000

= - $270,000

Schedule variance (SV) is a measure of schedule performance on a project. The variance notifies that the schedule is ahead or behind what was planned for this period in time. The schedule variance is calculated based on the following formula: SV = Earned Value (EV) - Planned Value (PV) If the resulting schedule is negative, it indicates that the project is behind schedule. A value greater than 0 shows that the project is ahead of the planned schedule. A value of 0 indicates that the project is right on target.

This is an example of corrective action. The project team will fix the mistake and they have learned from their mistake so it won't happen again.

Answer option C is incorrect. Risk mitigation is defined as monies spent or actions taken to reduce the probability and impact of an identified risk event.

Answer option A is incorrect. A risk response is an action to counteract an identified risk.

Answer option B is incorrect. There may be some team development happening in this instance but we don't have enough information to know for certain. Team development is an activity that brings the whole team cohesion, interdependency, and trust.

The risk owner is the individual on the project team that is closest to the risk event. The risk owner can be an individual or an organization responsible for implementing risk responses or contingency plan. The risk owner should be empowered with the ability to respond to the risk as it was planned.

Answer option B is incorrect. Harry is the project manager and likely would not be the risk owner as well.

Answer option C is incorrect. The project sponsor authorizes the project but does not participate in execution of the project.

Answer option D is incorrect. While a subject matter expert may be the risk owner on some occasions, he would not be the risk owner on every occasion.

The change in the amount of labor Ned is allowed to use will cause his project schedule to increase thereby affecting the project end date. Crashing the project will allow Ned to add more resources while still keeping each resource to a maximum of 25 hours per week.

Answer option D is incorrect. Ned likely does not have control over descoping decisions.

Answer option C is incorrect. Reducing the project labor is what resource leveling does.

Answer option B is incorrect. Adding risk mitigation won't necessarily help Ned finish the project faster.