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250-580 Symantec Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your Symantec 250-580 Endpoint Security Complete - R2 Technical Specialist certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 150 questions

Which action is provided by Symantec EDR for the rapid remediation of impacted endpoints?

A.

Quickly filtering for specific attributes

B.

Detonate Memory Exploits in conjunction with SEP

C.

Automatically stopping suspicious behaviors & unknown threats

D.

Block Listing or Allow Listing of specific files

SES includes an advanced policy versioning system. When an administrator edits and saves the properties of an existing policy, a new version of the policy is created. What is the status of all previous versions of the policy?

A.

They are marked dormant until reactivated

B.

They are deleted after 30 days

C.

They are active and can be assigned

D.

They are added to the policy archive list

What happens when a device fails a Host Integrity check?

A.

An antimalware scan is initiated

B.

The device is restarted

C.

The device is quarantined

D.

An administrative notification is logged

What EDR feature provides endpoint activity recorder data for a file hash?

A.

Process Dump

B.

Entity Dump

C.

Hash Dump

D.

Full Dump

Why is it important for an Incident Responder to copy malicious files to the SEDR file store or create an image of the infected system during the Recovery phase?

A.

To create custom IPS signatures

B.

To test the effectiveness of the current assigned policy settings in the Symantec Endpoint ProtectionManager (SEPM)

C.

To have a copy of the file for policy enforcement

D.

To document and preserve any pieces of evidence associated with the incident

An organization recently experienced an outbreak and is conducting a health check of the environment. What Protection Technology can the SEP team enable to control and monitor the behavior of applications?

A.

Host Integrity

B.

System Lockdown

C.

Application Control

D.

Behavior Monitoring (SONAR)

When a SEPM is enrolled in ICDm, which policy can only be managed from the cloud?

A.

LiveUpdate

B.

Firewall

C.

Network Intrusion Prevention

D.

Intensive Protection

What is the timeout for the file deletion command in SEDR?

A.

2 Days

B.

7 Days

C.

72 Hours

D.

5 Days

What should an administrator utilize to identify devices on a Mac?

A.

UseDevViewerwhen the Device is connected.

B.

Use Devicelnfo when the Device is connected.

C.

UseDevice Managerwhen the Device is connected.

D.

UseGatherSymantecInfowhen the Device is connected.

What must be entered before downloading a file from ICDm?

A.

Name

B.

Password

C.

Hash

D.

Date

In which phase of the MITRE framework would attackers exploit faults in software to directly tamper with system memory?

A.

Defense Evasion

B.

Execution

C.

Exfiltration

D.

Discovery

What protection technologies should an administrator enable to protect against Ransomware attacks?

A.

Firewall, Host Integrity, System Lockdown

B.

IPS, SONAR, and Download Insight

C.

IPS, Firewall, System Lockdown

D.

SONAR, Firewall, Download Insight

What is a feature of Cynic?

A.

Local Sandboxing

B.

Forwarding event data to Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)

C.

Cloud Sandboxing

D.

Customizable OS Images

A Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) administrator receives multiple reports that machines are experiencing performance issues. The administrator discovers that the reports happen at about the same time as the scheduled LiveUpdate.

Which setting should the SEP administrator configure to minimize I/O when LiveUpdate occurs?

A.

Change the LiveUpdate schedule

B.

Change the Administrator-defined scan schedule

C.

Disable Allow user-defined scans to run when the scan author is logged off

D.

Disable Run an Active Scan when new definitions arrive

Which Discover and Deploy process requires the LocalAccountTokenFilterPolicy value to be added to the Windows registry of endpoints, before the process begins?

A.

Push Enrollment

B.

Auto Discovery

C.

Push Discovery

D.

Device Enrollment

What information is required to calculate retention rate?

A.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

B.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, available disk space, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

C.

Number of endpoints, available bandwidth, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

D.

Number of endpoints, EAR data per endpoint per day, number of days to retain, number of endpoint dumps, dump size

Which rule types should be at the bottom of the list when an administrator adds device control rules?

A.

Specific "device type" rules

B.

Specific "device model" rules

C.

General "catch all" rules

D.

General "brand defined" rules

On which platform is LiveShell available?

A.

Windows

B.

All

C.

Linux

D.

Mac

What is the maximum number of endpoints a single SEDR Manager can support?

A.

200,000

B.

25,000

C.

100,000

D.

50,000

Which two (2) criteria are used by Symantec Insight to evaluate binary executables? (Select two.)

A.

Sensitivity

B.

Prevalence

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Content

E.

Age

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Total 150 questions
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