CPC AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

Melanoma is a malignant neoplasm of melanocytes, which are pigment-producing cells found primarily in the skin. It is one of the most serious forms of skin cancer and is classified under ICD-10-CM category C43.- (Malignant melanoma of skin).

Osteosarcoma is a malignant tumor of bone, not skin (ICD-10-CM C40–C41).

Hemangioma is a benign tumor of blood vessels and is not malignant (often coded under D18.-).

Lymphoma is a malignancy of the lymphatic system, not a primary skin neoplasm (ICD-10-CM C81–C85), though rare cutaneous lymphomas exist, they are not the standard CPC exam answer here.

1. E/M Code Category Selection:

The patient is a 19-year-old seen by his primary care physician for an annual preventive exam. His last exam was four years ago, and he has no complaints, indicating a preventive rather than problem-focused visit.

CPT® Code 99385 is for a new patient preventive visit for ages 18-39. Since the patient’s last visit was four years ago, this qualifies him as a new patient by CPT® standards (a patient is considered new if they have not received any professional services from the physician within the past three years).

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 99395 is for an established patient preventive visit for ages 18-39, which does not apply here since the patient is considered new after four years.

Code 99394 is for a preventive visit for an established patient aged 12-17, which does not match the patient’s age.

Code 99384 is for a new patient preventive visit for ages 12-17, which also does not apply given the patient’s age of 19.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to CPT® guidelines, 99385 is appropriate for a new patient in the 18-39 age range for a preventive visit, especially when they have not seen the provider in over three years.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 99385.

A tympanoplasty repairs aperforated tympanic membrane. The key phrase “doesnotremove the mastoid” means this istympanoplasty without mastoidectomy, which is correctly represented by69631in the answer set. Codes that include mastoid work (or represent different tympanoplasty variants) are incorrect because the documentation explicitly states the mastoid was not removed. Diagnosis coding should reflect both thechronic otitis mediaand theperforation. In the options,H66.92represents otitis media (as offered) andH72.92represents perforation of the tympanic membrane (as offered). Although the clinical story specifies the left ear, the provided diagnosis options do not include laterality; on CPC-style questions, you choose the best match among the answer choices. Therefore, the correct combination within this question’s choices is69631 with H66.92 and H72.92, matching tympanoplasty without mastoidectomy plus the documented conditions.

74021 = Abdomen, complete, including decubitus and erect views

-26 = Professional component

This is adiagnosticmammogram (not screening) performed onone breast (left). CPT distinguishes screening from diagnostic:77067is screening mammography and is not appropriate because there is a symptom (palpable lump) and the service is diagnostic. CPT also distinguishes unilateral vs bilateral diagnostic:77065isdiagnostic mammography, unilateral, and77066is diagnostic mammography, bilateral—so the correct selection is77065. The vignette mentions CAD, but current mammography CPT coding incorporates digital and CAD elements into the diagnostic mammography code structure in typical CPC-style testing, and the question asks which code(s) are reported, offering only single-code answers.77061is not the primary diagnostic mammography code; it relates to breast tomosynthesis add-on concepts in many coding frameworks, but the stem describes diagnostic mammography with additional views, not explicit tomosynthesis reporting. Therefore, for unilateral diagnostic mammography of the left breast, the correct code is77065.

Anesthesia CPT®:

00120 – Anesthesia for ear procedures

AD modifier:

Anesthesiologist medically directing > 4 CRNAs

P3 – Severe systemic disease

Diagnosis Code:

H90.41 – Sensorineural hearing loss, unilateral, right ear

Why others are incorrect:

AA – Personally performed

QX / QY – Incorrect direction model

H90.5 – Unspecified hearing loss

A “recent football injury” indicates anacute traumaticinjury rather than a chronic/old derangement. Acute meniscus tears are coded from theS83.2-category (tear of meniscus, current injury), not theM23.-category (derangement of meniscus due to old tear or injury). The question specifiesmedial meniscus,left knee, and implies aninitial encounterfor the acute injury, so the correct code must include laterality and the 7th characterAfor initial encounter.S83.232Acorresponds to acurrent tear of the medial meniscus, left knee, initial encounter.S83.242Ais a different meniscus specification (not medial).M23.202/M23.204are derangement codes typically used forold tearsor chronic conditions, not an acute recent sports injury. CPC exam tip: “recent injury” →S-codes, “old tear/derangement” →M23. Mnemonic:S = Sudden (acute),M = Mature (old/chronic).

CPT®: The documentation supports excision of a subcutaneous soft tissue tumor of the hand, size 1.5 cm.

26111 = Excision of tumor/soft tissue of hand or finger, subcutaneous, 1.5 cm or less

26115 would be for a larger size range (not supported by “1.5 cm” in the question).

ICD-10-CM: Pathology confirms subcutaneous hemangioma (benign vascular tumor).

D18.01 = Hemangioma of skin and subcutaneous tissueCodes D21.01/D21.11 are benign neoplasm of connective/soft tissue categories, but the most accurate match here (and the one reflected in the answer choices) is D18.01 for hemangioma of skin/subcutaneous tissue.

Typing correction applied: the options showed “018.01”; the correct ICD-10-CM format is D18.01.

Medical terms often consist of a root word and a suffix.

Hepat/o = liver

-itis = inflammation

Therefore, hepatitis literally means inflammation of the liver.

The incorrect options refer to inflammation of other body parts:

Dermatitis – inflammation of the skin

Gastritis – inflammation of the stomach

Arthritis – inflammation of the joints

Hence, the correct answer is C. Hepatitis.

This is destruction of malignant lesions (SCC).

17261 = Malignant lesion destruction, trunk/arms/legs, 0.6–1.0 cm

17262 = Same location, 1.1–2.0 cm

Feet are included in trunk/arms/legs.

Therefore, 17262, 17261 is correct.

33016 = Pericardiocentesis, including imaging guidance (e.g., ultrasound) when performed.Because the code already includes imaging guidance, you do not separately report 76942.So the correct coding is 33016 only → B.

99223 = Initial hospital/observation care with high time (75+ min) or high MDM

Prolonged service 99418 is bundled into observation services

Procedure: The physician performed a liver biopsy using ultrasonic guidance.

CPT® Codes:

47000: This code is for the liver biopsy.

76942-26: This code is for ultrasonic guidance for needle placement, with modifier -26 indicating the professional component.

Code Selection Justification: The CPT® code 47000 specifically captures the liver biopsy, and 76942-26 accurately represents the ultrasonic guidance utilized during the procedure.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

ICD-10-CM (current year)

HCPCS Level II (current year)

50230 – Radical nephrectomy, including removal of kidney, perirenal fat, adrenal gland, and regional lymph nodes

Open approach with rib resection

Correct for extensive removal beyond simple nephrectomy

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

50545 / 50543 – Laparoscopic/robotic approaches

50220 – Simple nephrectomy only

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The otolaryngologist was asked to perform a general otolaryngologic examination of the patient under general anesthesia to evaluate for injuries sustained from a traumatic fall.

CPT® Code 92502 is appropriate for a general otolaryngologic examination under general anesthesia. This code is used specifically when an ENT examination is performed under anesthesia, as was the case here.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 92512 is for nasal function studies, such as rhinomanometry, which does not apply to a general otolaryngologic examination.

Code 21310 is for the treatment of a nasal fracture (closed treatment), which would only be appropriate if the otolaryngologist had performed a fracture reduction or repair. Since only an examination was performed, 21310 is not appropriate.

Code 92502-51 (option B) is incorrect because the -51 modifier (multiple procedures) is unnecessary; only a single examination was performed.

3. ICD-10-CM Code:

Since only the examination was performed and not treatment, the ICD-10-CM code for nasal fracture (likely S02.2XXA for unspecified fracture of the nasal bones, initial encounter) would be reported separately by the facility or based on final documentation.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines support the use of 92502 for general ENT examinations performed under anesthesia, especially in cases of trauma evaluation without surgical intervention.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. 92502.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent venous thrombosis imaging of each leg to assess for deep venous thrombosis (DVT).

CPT® Code 78457 is used for a venous thrombosis imaging study. This code is appropriate for imaging to detect DVT.

Modifier 50 is applied to indicate a bilateral procedure, as imaging was performed on both legs.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code I82.403 is used for acute embolism and thrombosis of unspecified deep veins of bilateral lower extremities. This code accurately describes the finding of DVT in both legs.

Other ICD-10-CM options, such as I82.401 and I82.402, specify unilateral lower extremity involvement, which does not accurately reflect the bilateral findings in this case.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 78458 (in options A and D) is for a more comprehensive study, often cardiac or whole-body blood pool imaging, and is not specific to leg venous thrombosis.

Option C, which lists 78457 with individual RT and LT modifiers, is incorrect as Modifier 50 is appropriate for bilateral imaging on both legs.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC and CPT® guidelines, 78457 with Modifier 50 should be used for bilateral venous imaging studies, and I82.403 correctly captures bilateral DVT.

Thus, the correct answer is B. 78457-50, I82.403.

99464 = Attendance at delivery with initial stabilization

99465 is used when resuscitation is required

99460 is for normal newborn care after birth

A myringotomy is a surgical incision into the tympanic membrane (eardrum).

A myringotomy tube (ventilation tube) is placed in the ear to allow drainage of fluid from the middle ear and to equalize pressure.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Ear.

“Three-view imaging of both hips and the pelvis” corresponds toCPT 73523(bilateral hips with pelvis, 3–4 views). Because the same study is repeated laterthe same daydue to a new event (fall from bed) and is interpreted by thesame radiologist, the correct repeat modifier concept is-76(repeat procedure by thesamephysician/qualified health professional). The most accurate reporting is73523for the first study and73523-76for the repeat study. Among the provided options,Dis the only choice that includes both73523and the correct repeat-by-same modifier-76. The inclusion of-51in option D reflects a multiple-procedure concept that is not the primary modifier logic for a true repeat of the same radiologic service; however, the CPC exam intent here is to recognize73523and that the repeat isby the same radiologist, requiring-76(not -77). Key learning point: select the correctstudy code by views, then apply-76for same-provider repeat interpretation.