CPC AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

99213-25 = E/M with separate procedure

87880 = Rapid strep test

J02.0 = Streptococcal pharyngitis

Symptoms are not reported with definitive diagnosis

Procedure Coding:

56633 – Radical vulvectomy (removal of >80%), including deep subcutaneous tissue

Documentation supports greater than 80% vulvar removal

Deep tissue involvement confirms radical procedure

Diagnosis Coding:

D07.1 – Carcinoma in situ of vulva

VIN III = high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion

Classified as carcinoma in situ, not benign dysplasia

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

56620 / 56625 / 56630 – Partial or simple vulvectomy

N90.1 – Mild vulvar dysplasia (incorrect severity)

ICD-10-CM Official Guideline:

VIN III is coded as D07.1, not N90.x.

00534 = Anesthesia for pacemaker/defibrillator procedures

QZ = CRNA without medical direction

QS = MAC anesthesia

I49.01 = Ventricular fibrillation

In medical terminology, the suffix -graph refers to an instrument used for recording data or the process of recording. This suffix is commonly tested on the CPC exam.

Examples include:

Electrocardiograph – instrument used to record heart activity

Angiograph – instrument used to record images of blood vessels

To distinguish from related suffixes:

-gram = the record or image itself

-graphy = the process of recording

Thus, option A is correct.

The procedure described is flexible bronchoscopy with bronchial biopsy (biopsy taken from the bronchi/bronchial tubes).

31625 = Bronchoscopy, flexible, with biopsy (single or multiple)

Important CPC concept: when the CPT® descriptor is “single or multiple”, you code it once, even if multiple biopsies are taken.

31628 is for transbronchial lung biopsy, which is not what is described (the question specifies bronchial tubes/bronchial biopsies).Therefore, A is correct.

J1071 = Testosterone cypionate, 200 mg per unit

96372 = Therapeutic IM injection

Vaccine admin codes do not apply

ANESTHESIA

CPT code 99450 is used for the examination of a patient for the purpose of establishing medical baseline information or for insurance purposes. Since Eric's primary care provider completed the required physical exam documentation for his life insurance policy, this is appropriately reported with code 99450. References: CPT® Professional Edition (current year), AMA.

This scenario describesconjunctival provocation testing: an allergenic extract is placed into theconjunctival mucous membraneof the eye and the patient is observed for a localized allergic response (redness, itching, tearing). CPT95060is the code that representsconjunctival (ophthalmic) allergy testing/provocation. The distractors are other allergy testing codes that do not match the site and method described. For CPC exam logic, the key is identifying theroute/siteof allergen exposure: not intradermal (skin), not percutaneous prick, not inhalation/bronchial challenge—this is specificallyocular mucosal testing. The wording “introduced into the mucous membrane inner lining of the eye” is the classic cue. Also note that the code selection is driven by thetype of test, not the suspected diagnosis alone. Therefore, conjunctival provocation testing is correctly reported with95060, and the other options represent different categories of allergy testing or challenge methods.

To accurately code this emergency department visit, we need to assess the three key components: history, examination, and medical decision making (MDM).

History:

The documentation supports an expanded problem-focused history. This includes a chief complaint, a brief history of present illness (HPI), a review of systems (ROS) with pertinent positives and negatives, and a past medical history.

Examination:

The examination is also expanded problem-focused. The physician focused on the relevant systems (constitutional, HENT, respiratory) and documented specific findings related to the chief complaint (appears tired).

Medical Decision Making:

The MDM complexity is low. The physician is assessing a new problem (shortness of breath and weakness) with a low level of risk. No further testing or treatment is documented in this encounter.

Based on these components, 99283 is the most appropriate code.

Why other options are incorrect:

99282: Requires a problem-focused history and examination, which is less comprehensive than what was documented.

99284 and 99285: Require a higher level of MDM (moderate or high complexity) and/or a more detailed examination. The documentation doesn't support this level of service.

Modifier selection for discontinued procedures depends onsettingandhow far the procedure progressed. In the CPT modifier framework,-53(Discontinued Procedure) is used when a physician terminates a procedure due toextenuating circumstances or those that threaten the well-being of the patientafter the procedure has begun. Here, anesthesia was given, the incision was made, and then respiratory distress occurred—clearly a patient safety issue requiring stopping the surgery. That matches modifier-53for the surgeon’s claim. Modifier-74is afacilitymodifier (commonly used by ambulatory surgery centers/hospitals for discontinued outpatient procedures after anesthesia), not the surgeon’s CPT modifier in the typical CPC context. Modifier-47indicates anesthesia by the surgeon, which is not the key fact here and does not represent discontinuation. Modifier-52is for reduced services when a service is partially reduced at the physician’s discretion, not terminated for patient safety. Therefore, the oral surgeon reports21060-53.

In ICD-10-CM coding, an Excludes2 note under a code indicates that the condition listed in the note is not included in the definition of the code, but it does not necessarily mean they cannot coexist. This type of note means that while the conditions are distinct, it may be appropriate to report both codes if a patient has both conditions at the same time.

A. is incorrect because Excludes1, not Excludes2, indicates that certain codes should not be reported together.

C. is a description of an Excludes1 note, which implies that the two conditions should not be coded together because they cannot occur simultaneously.

D. is also a description of an Excludes1 note, which serves as a "NOT CODED HERE!" directive.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. It is acceptable to report both the code and the excluded code together, when applicable.

49190 = Excision of peritoneal tumor greater than 10 cm

C48.2 = Malignant neoplasm of peritoneum

90378 = RSV monoclonal antibody, 50 mg per dose

100 mg = 2 units

96372 = Therapeutic IM injection

Vaccine admin codes (90460/90471) do not apply

Procedure: Caloric vestibular testing performed on both ears with three irrigations.

CPT® Code:

92537: Caloric vestibular test with recording, bilateral; bithermal (i.e., one warm and one cool irrigation in each ear).

Modifier -50: Bilateral procedure.

Code Selection Justification: The procedure performed was bilateral caloric vestibular testing with bithermal irrigation, appropriately coded with 92537 and modifier -50 for bilateral procedures.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

For the excision of an 11 cm lesion with a rotation flap repair, the appropriate CPT codes are 14001 for the adjacent tissue transfer or rearrangement (12 sq cm flap) and 11606-51 for the excision of a malignant lesion including margins, face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips; excised diameter over 4.0 cm. Modifier 51 indicates multiple procedures. The detailed operative report specifies the lesion size and the technique used, justifying these codes.

Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy: This involves the removal of both fallopian tubes and ovaries.

Right and left fallopian tubes: Both fallopian tubes are removed.

Left ovary: Only the left ovary is removed.

Abdominal incision: The procedure is performed via an abdominal approach.

58720: Salpingo-oophorectomy, complete or partial, unilateral or bilateral (separate procedure).

The procedure involves the removal of both fallopian tubes and one ovary, making 58720 the appropriate code.

The correct J codes are selected based on the specific medications administered and their quantities:

J2405 represents "ondansetron, 1 mg," and since the patient received a 2 mg dose, J2405 is reported once with a quantity of 2 mg.

J1885 represents "ketorolac tromethamine, 15 mg," which matches the single 15 mg dose administered to the patient, so J1885 is reported once.

Each J code is billed according to the precise dosage given, as no multipliers are required beyond the single-unit codes provided in choice A, making it the correct answer.

The procedure involves the aspiration of fluid from an ovarian follicle to retrieve the egg under radiologic guidance.

Procedure Description:

Aspiration needle insertion.

Puncture of the ovary and preovulatory follicle.

Withdrawal of fluid containing the egg.

Radiologic guidance was used.

CPT® Coding:

58976: Aspiration of ovarian follicle(s) with ultrasound guidance.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on reproductive procedures.

For a procedure involving the placement of a 6-French sheath and catheter into the coronary artery, advancing to the left ventricle, performing ventriculography with power injection of contrast agent, obtaining pressures in the left heart, and imaging the coronary arteries, the correct CPT® code is 93458. This code includes all the components of the described procedure.