CPC AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a needle biopsy of the liver using CT guidance to obtain two core biopsy samples.

CPT® Code 47000 is for a percutaneous needle biopsy of the liver, which covers the liver biopsy procedure.

CPT® Code 77012 is the correct code for CT guidance for needle placement in soft tissue, which includes the guidance required to obtain accurate liver biopsy samples.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 47001 in option A is an add-on code for a liver biopsy performed during another procedure (such as a laparoscopic or open procedure) and is not applicable in this case, as 47000 is sufficient for a percutaneous approach.

Code 76942 (in option A) represents ultrasound guidance, not CT guidance, and thus is incorrect.

Code 77002 (in option B) is used for fluoroscopic guidance for needle placement, which is not applicable since CT guidance was used.

Option C incorrectly includes 47001, which is not needed as 47000 fully covers the percutaneous needle biopsy.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, 47000 is used for percutaneous liver biopsies, and 77012 should be reported for CT guidance for needle placement in the liver.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. 47000, 77012.

Procedure Coding (CPT®):

69910 – Labyrinthectomy, complete; transmastoid approach

Provider performed:

Mastoidectomy

Complete destruction/removal of semicircular canals, utricle, and saccule

This is a complete labyrinthectomy, not partial

69990 – Microsurgical techniques, requiring use of operating microscope

Separately reportable with otologic procedures

Modifier -51 not required (add-on code)

Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):

H81.391 – Peripheral vertigo, right ear

Correct laterality and condition

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

69905 – Partial labyrinthectomy

R42 – Symptom code (dizziness), not used when definitive diagnosis exists

CPT70450describes aCT of the head/brain without contrast. When aradiology facilityperforms the technical portion (scanner, technologist, supplies) and theprovider only interprets and reportsthe study, the provider bills theprofessional componentusing modifier-26. That is exactly what the vignette describes: the radiology facility performed the scan, and the provider received images and provided the interpretation—so the provider reports70450-26. Reporting70450alone would imply billing the global service (professional + technical), which would be incorrect because the provider did not supply the equipment/technical resources. Modifier-TCis used to bill thetechnical component, which would be reported by the facility, not the interpreting provider in this scenario. Modifier-26-TCtogether is not appropriate because it would contradict itself (professional and technical simultaneously). CPC exam tip: always determinewho performedthe technical work andwho interpreted; then use-26for interpretation-only billing.

Systematically billing all office visits at a predetermined level—without documentation supporting the requiredmedical decision making (MDM)ortime—is a classic compliance red flag and is generally treated asabuse(often described as upcoding when higher levels are billed than supported). E/M levels must reflect what was actually performed and documented for that encounter, using the E/M rules (MDM elements or total time, depending on code selection). Even if a provider treats complex patients, not every visit will meet the same level; stable follow-ups may be lower complexity than acute exacerbations or new problems. “Waste” generally refers to inefficient or unnecessary use of resources without intent to misrepresent; a blanket instruction to code moderate levels suggestssystematic misbillingrather than inefficiency. Option D is incorrect because providers cannot select any level at will—coding must be supported by documentation. This type of pattern is exactly what audits target, and it can trigger overpayment recoupment, penalties, and corrective action plans.

In CPT, a code labeled“separate procedure”is typically a service that isnormally includedas part of a more comprehensive procedure andshould not be reported separatelywhen performed as an integral component. However, itmaybe reported when performedindependentlyorunrelatedto the primary procedure—this supports options A, B, and C as true. The false statement isDbecause CPT doesnotinstruct that modifier79is specifically required to report a separate procedure with an unrelated primary service. Modifier selection depends on the actual circumstances and payer rules, and “separate procedure” logic is about whether the service isdistinct and not integral, often supported by documentation of a different site/session or separate clinical intent; when a modifier is needed, it is commonly adistinct procedural servicemodifier (e.g., 59 or X{EPSU}) rather than automatically 79. Modifier79is a global surgery modifier used for anunrelated procedure during the postoperative period, which is a different concept than “separate procedure” designation.

Complex (arm, 4 cm) → 13121

Intermediate legs total = 20.5 cm → 12036

Simple face closures coded separately:

12013 (cheek)

12011 (nose)

Modifiers allow separate anatomical reporting.

Correct answer: A

The National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) was developed by CMS to:

Prevent unbundling

Define procedure-to-procedure (PTP) edits

Identify when modifiers (such as -59) may be appropriate

NCCI edits are critical for accurate CPT® coding and proper reimbursement.

80324 – Drug test(s), definitive, qualitative or quantitative, LC/MS; acetaminophen

LC-MS = definitive testing

Acetaminophen is specifically identified by 80324

Why others are incorrect:

60143 / 80299 – Therapeutic drug assays (obsolete or nonspecific)

B0329 – HCPCS code (not appropriate here)

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The scenario describes the excision of a 5 cm tumor located in the left lower quadrant of the abdominal wall. The tumor was excised down to the dermis and subcutaneous layers and removed using electrocautery.

Code 22903 is appropriate for the excision of a soft tissue tumor in the abdominal wall greater than 5 cm, making it the correct CPT® code.

Code 22901 applies to the excision of a soft tissue tumor in the abdominal wall but only for tumors 5 cm or less. Given that the tumor in this case is exactly 5 cm, it meets the threshold for 22903, which is more appropriate here.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code D49.2 is used for a neoplasm of unspecified behavior in the abdominal area, reflecting the fact that the pathology report is pending to determine if the tumor is malignant.

Code C76.2 would be incorrect because it is for malignant neoplasms of unspecified abdominal areas, which we cannot confirm based on the initial excision. Similarly, R19.04 (indicating a mass in the abdominal region) is a symptom code and is not appropriate for a definitive diagnosis when a neoplasm code (D49.2) exists.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

Per AAPC coding guidelines, the size of the tumor is critical in selecting the correct excision code for abdominal wall neoplasms. Additionally, if the tumor’s pathology is not confirmed as malignant, it is coded as a neoplasm of unspecified behavior until further details are known.

Therefore, based on CPT® and ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, the verified answer is B. 22903, D49.2.

The urinalysis performed is described asautomated, without microscopy, which corresponds to CPT81003(urinalysis, automated, without microscopy). CPT81001includes microscopy and is not supported because the question explicitly states “without microscopy.” For diagnosis coding, the providersuspecteda UTI, but the urinalysis is negative andUTI is ruled outas the final diagnosis. Under ICD-10-CM reporting principles, conditions documented asruled outarenot codedin the outpatient/office setting; instead, you code thesigns and symptomsthat prompted the visit and testing. The symptoms documented aredysuriaandlower abdominal pain, which are coded asR30.0andR10.30(as presented in the answer choices). Therefore, the correct combination is81003withR30.0andR10.30only. CPC exam tip: outpatient “rule out” → codesymptoms, not the excluded diagnosis.

Cystourethroscopy: This is a procedure that involves the use of a cystoscope to look inside the urethra and bladder.

Pyeloscopy: Involves the examination of the upper urinary tract, typically done through the cystoscope.

Lithotripsy: A procedure that uses shock waves or a laser to break up stones in the kidney, bladder, or ureter.

Indwelling stent insertion: A procedure to place a stent in the ureter to help urine flow from the kidney to the bladder.

52356: Cystourethroscopy with ureteroscopy and/or pyeloscopy; with lithotripsy (ureteral catheterization and/or ureteral stent placement).

The code 52356 includes all components mentioned: cystourethroscopy, pyeloscopy, lithotripsy, and stent insertion performed in the same operative session.

Brackets [ ] in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index are used to identify manifestation codes.

These codes cannot be reported as the principal diagnosis and must be sequenced after the underlying condition.

This is a frequently tested ICD-10-CM guideline concept.