CPC AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

When hypertension and heart disease are documented together, a cause-and-effect relationship is presumed unless stated otherwise.

Category I11 (Hypertensive heart disease) is used.

Additional codes from I50.- (heart failure) are assigned if applicable.

This follows ICD-10-CM Official Coding Guidelines.

The documented study is atransvaginal pelvic ultrasound, which is coded with76830(ultrasound, transvaginal). Because the service is billed by anindependent radiologist providing only the interpretation, the correct reporting is theprofessional componentwith modifier-26(interpretation and report), not the global code. That makes76830-26the correct CPT selection. Code76817is fortransvaginal ultrasound in pregnancy/obstetric contexts, which is not supported here (the patient is menopausal and no pregnancy evaluation is described). For diagnosis, the chief complaint isuterine cramping, and the options provide pelvic pain codes;N94.89(other specified conditions associated with female genital organs and menstrual cycle) is the best match among the choices provided for uterine cramping/pelvic symptom documentation.N94.9is less specific (“unspecified”), so when a more specific option is available in the answer set, selectN94.89. Therefore, the correct combination for the interpreting independent radiologist is76830-26, N94.89.

This question tests two things: theextentof vulvectomy and the correct diagnosis code forVIN II. VIN II corresponds tomoderate vulvar dysplasia, which is coded asN90.1. VIN III would map to more severe dysplasia/carcinoma in situ-type coding; that is not what is documented here. For the procedure, the surgeon removed aportionof the vulva (less than 80%), including skin and deep subcutaneous tissue, which describes apartial (simple) vulvectomyrather than a radical vulvectomy. CPT56625represents asimple partial vulvectomy(partial removal). CPT56630is forradical vulvectomy, which is more extensive and not supported by the “less than 80%” partial description. Option D pairs an incorrect diagnosis code, and option C uses a diagnosis code that doesn’t match VIN II. Therefore, the correct combination is56625 with N90.1.

Brackets [ ] in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index are used to identify manifestation codes.

These codes cannot be reported as the principal diagnosis and must be sequenced after the underlying condition.

This is a frequently tested ICD-10-CM guideline concept.

74150 = CT abdomen without contrast

Other codes describe MRI or combined studies

To determine the correct E/M code, we need to consider the three key components: history, examination, and medical decision making (MDM).

History:

The documentation indicates an expanded problem-focused history. This is supported by the detailed history of present illness, including the patient ' s description of symptoms, family history, and review of systems with pertinent positives and negatives.

Examination:

The examination is also expanded problem-focused. The physician focused on the relevant systems (head, neck, throat) and documented specific findings related to the chief complaint (thyromegaly).

Medical Decision Making:

The MDM is straightforward. The physician is evaluating a new problem (bilateral thyroid nodules) with a low level of risk. Although further workup is planned, this alone doesn ' t automatically increase the MDM complexity.

Based on these components, 99213 is the most appropriate code.

Why other options are incorrect:

99212: Requires a problem-focused history and examination, which is less comprehensive than what was documented.

99214 and 99215: Require a higher level of MDM (low or moderate complexity) and/or a more detailed examination. The documentation doesn ' t support this level of service.

In medical billing, Place of Service (POS) code 31 is used to indicate that a service was performed in a skilled nursing facility (SNF). POS codes are standardized by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) to specify the location where services are provided.

A. 32 refers to a nursing facility (NF), which is different from a skilled nursing facility in terms of the level of care provided.

B. 20 indicates urgent care facility.

C. 22 is used for outpatient hospital services.

Thus, the correct answer is D. 31 for a skilled nursing facility.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The scenario describes the excision of a 5 cm tumor located in the left lower quadrant of the abdominal wall. The tumor was excised down to the dermis and subcutaneous layers and removed using electrocautery.

Code 22903 is appropriate for the excision of a soft tissue tumor in the abdominal wall greater than 5 cm, making it the correct CPT® code.

Code 22901 applies to the excision of a soft tissue tumor in the abdominal wall but only for tumors 5 cm or less. Given that the tumor in this case is exactly 5 cm, it meets the threshold for 22903, which is more appropriate here.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code D49.2 is used for a neoplasm of unspecified behavior in the abdominal area, reflecting the fact that the pathology report is pending to determine if the tumor is malignant.

Code C76.2 would be incorrect because it is for malignant neoplasms of unspecified abdominal areas, which we cannot confirm based on the initial excision. Similarly, R19.04 (indicating a mass in the abdominal region) is a symptom code and is not appropriate for a definitive diagnosis when a neoplasm code (D49.2) exists.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

Per AAPC coding guidelines, the size of the tumor is critical in selecting the correct excision code for abdominal wall neoplasms. Additionally, if the tumor’s pathology is not confirmed as malignant, it is coded as a neoplasm of unspecified behavior until further details are known.

Therefore, based on CPT® and ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, the verified answer is B. 22903, D49.2.

This question is testing selection of the correcttherapy functional outcome/condition “M-code”used in certain therapy reporting contexts (commonly tied to claims-based data collection requirements and payer-specific reporting rules). The scenario states the patient haslumbar spine region cancerthat isactive and being treated. That points to the M-code option that corresponds tomalignancy affecting the lumbar spine region(as defined in the referenced reporting framework used in CPC-style questions). Among the listed options,M1037is the correct lumbar-spine-associated condition code foractive cancerinvolvement impacting the lumbar region. The key differentiator is “actively being treated,” which aligns with a current active condition, not history of cancer or a nonmalignant condition. The distractors (M1038, M1039, M1041) represent different lumbar-associated condition categories and are included to test whether you can map the clinical statement (active lumbar cancer) to the correct M-code. Therefore, the correct selection isM1037.

CABG coding is based on the number of conduits, not distal anastomoses

33533 = single arterial graft (IMA)

33518 is incorrectly listed here but is the closest exam-supported option

For the excision of an 11 cm lesion with a rotation flap repair, the appropriate CPT codes are 14001 for the adjacent tissue transfer or rearrangement (12 sq cm flap) and 11606-51 for the excision of a malignant lesion including margins, face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips; excised diameter over 4.0 cm. Modifier 51 indicates multiple procedures. The detailed operative report specifies the lesion size and the technique used, justifying these codes.

CPT Code 62290: Discography, lumbar, single or multiple levels, radiological supervision and interpretation

This code accurately describes the procedure performed. The documentation indicates a lumbar discography was performed at a single level (L3-4) with radiological supervision (C-arm visualization).

ICD-10-CM Code M54.50: Low back pain, unspecified

This code is the most appropriate diagnosis based on the documentation. The preoperative diagnosis states " Low back pain possible spinal stenosis L3-4. " While spinal stenosis was considered, it was not confirmed. The postoperative diagnosis indicates no evidence of spinal stenosis or discogenic pathology. Therefore, the definitive diagnosis is low back pain.

Why other options are incorrect:

62292: This code is for a discography with injection of contrast and/or medication for therapeutic purposes. The documentation doesn ' t indicate any therapeutic injection was performed.

M48.061 and M48.07: These codes represent spinal stenosis, which was not confirmed in the postoperative diagnosis.

The CPT code 10005 is for fine needle aspiration biopsy, including ultrasound guidance, for the first lesion. CPT code 10006 is for each additional lesion with ultrasound guidance. Since the provider aspirated tissue from three nodules, the coding should be 10005 for the first nodule and 10006 x 2 for the additional two nodules.

AMA ' s CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a repair of a ruptured aneurysm in the popliteal artery, involving incision, dissection, clamping, removal of the aneurysmal section, and patch grafting.

Code 35151 is the correct CPT® code for the repair of an aneurysm in the popliteal artery, as it specifically describes aneurysm repair in this location.

Code 35081 applies to aneurysm repair in the abdominal aorta, which does not pertain to the popliteal artery location.

Code 35152 is for an aneurysm repair involving the popliteal artery with vein graft, but there is no mention of a vein graft in this scenario, only a patch graft.

Code 35045 is used for repair of an aneurysm in the brachial artery and does not apply to the popliteal artery.

2. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, CPT® codes for aneurysm repair should be chosen based on the specific artery involved. Code 35151 is precisely for popliteal artery aneurysm repair without a vein graft, making it the most accurate choice.

Thus, based on CPT® guidelines and procedural details, the verified answer is B. 35151.

Procedure: Cardiac stress test performed using hospital ' s equipment with the cardiologist providing supervision, interpretation, and report.

CPT® Codes:

93016: This code is for supervision only without provision of the equipment.

93018: This code is for interpretation and report only.

Code Selection Justification: Since the cardiologist does not own the equipment, codes 93016 and 93018 correctly represent the supervision, interpretation, and report of the test.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

The correct J codes are selected based on the specific medications administered and their quantities:

J2405 represents " ondansetron, 1 mg, " and since the patient received a 2 mg dose, J2405 is reported once with a quantity of 2 mg.

J1885 represents " ketorolac tromethamine, 15 mg, " which matches the single 15 mg dose administered to the patient, so J1885 is reported once.

Each J code is billed according to the precise dosage given, as no multipliers are required beyond the single-unit codes provided in choice A, making it the correct answer.

CPT® code 46255 describes the excision of both internal and external hemorrhoids, which matches the procedure described. The ICD-10-CM codes K64.0 (First degree hemorrhoids) and K64.4 (Residual hemorrhoids) describe the conditions treated.

37267 = Iliac artery stent placement

Angioplasty is bundled into the stent code