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CAMS ACAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your ACAMS CAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 313 questions

Which section of the USA PATRIOT Act relates to forfeiture of funds and allows for extraterritorial reach?

A.

Section 319(b)

B.

Section 314(b)

C.

Section 314(a)

D.

Section 319(a)

The owner of a real estate investment company deposits multiple cashier's checks that were bought using cash over a three-month period, from the sale of two apartments. This account also receives several electronic transfers from other financial institutions for US$10,000 each.

What activity is considered suspicious of money laundering?

A.

Receiving electronic transfers for US$10,000 amounts from other financial institutions

B.

Using cash to buy multiple cashier's checks over a period of time

C.

Performing operations with real estate investment companies

D.

Using cashier's checks in the transactions with the real estate investment company's account

An EU Trust and Company Service Provider analyst notices some unusual activity while looking through a customer's financial statements and detailed general ledger. The customer is in the business of importing and exporting machineries.

Which transaction indicator warrants further escalation to the compliance officer?

A.

The payment of company secretarial retainer fees to a foreign company in a tax-efficient jurisdiction

B.

The payment of virtual offices services overseas

C.

Inter-company loans from the holding company to the subsidiary company to finance the shipment of machinery

D.

The payment of consultancy fees to unrelated companies and service providers established in a foreign jurisdiction

Which of the following are potential financial crime-related red flags when obtaining client data? (Choose three.)

A.

A client frequently submits financial statements much earlier than required appearing overly eager

B.

A client insists on using a personal bank account for business transactions despite being advised otherwise

C.

A new client shows a preference for minimal direct interaction and relies primarily on indirect communication methods, citing convenience or time constraints

D.

The client is a publicly listed company but very diversified

E.

The ultimate beneficial ownership is unclear

Upon learning of a potential weakness through an organization's enterprise-wide sanctions risk assessment relating to a low number of sanctions screening alerts generated compared to the business size and operations identified, which action would best ensure the risk area is properly managed and remediated to the best possible extent?

A.

Reviewing the enterprise-wide risk assessment methodology

B.

Enhancing staff training on the documentation of justification on closed alerts

C.

Revisiting the post-transaction monitoring system parameters and thresholds

D.

Reviewing the fuzzy logic currently adopted in the screening system

Which statement is the most accurate describing who must comply with Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions?

A.

All US citizens and permanent residents while located in the US, all US incorporated entities and their foreign branches, and all individuals within the United States

B.

All US citizens and permanent residents regardless of where they are located, all US incorporated entities excluding their foreign branches, and all individuals and entities within the United States

C.

All US citizens except those with dual nationality, US permanent residents, all US incorporated entities, and all individuals within the United States

D.

All US citizens and permanent residents regardless of where they are located, all US incorporated entities and their foreign branches, and all individuals and entities within the United States

Which of the following accurately describes the economic, reputational and social consequences of money laundering (ML) and the risks and consequences of violating AFC regulations? (Choose two.)

A.

ML undermines the integrity and stability of financial systems and makes them vulnerable to illegal activity. This can erode investor confidence and hinder economic growth.

B.

When a financial institution (FI) is found to be promoting ML or violating AFC regulations, this can lead to a loss of confidence in the institution and a loss of customers. Interestingly, this scenario might sidestep any legal consequences for the Fl.

C.

When laundered funds flow into legitimate economies, they can be used for illegal purposes, such as funding terrorist activities or organized crime. This distorts resource allocation and undermines development.

D.

Jurisdictions perceived as having insufficient ML measures might be identified as uncooperative or high-risk, potentially facing restricted access to international markets, though economic sanctions by other countries are an unlikely outcome.

A National Risk Assessment (NRA) can impact a financial institution's (Fl's) risk-based approach to anti-money laundering and terrorism financing by:

A.

dictating what predicate offences must be considered in the Fl's risk assessment.

B.

providing guidance on the types of customers and transactions that pose the highest risk.

C.

defining exactly what policies and procedures must be implemented.

D.

determining the maximum fines that can be imposed for AML violations.

Which collective body of Financial Intelligence Units (FlUs) was formed with an objective to improve Information exchange and sharing mechanisms among member FlUs as well as to support its members by enhancing their capabilities'?

A.

The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

B.

The Egmont Group

C.

The Wolfsberg Group

D.

The International Monetary Fund (IMF)

According to PinCEN. when a financial institution (PI) identities a suspicious activity that necessitates suspicious activity report (SAR) filing, the SAR supporting documentation should (Select Two.)

A.

include all documents or records that assisted the Fl in making the determination that the activity required a filing.

B.

always be limited to account name, account details, and transaction records.

C.

have written policies and procedures to maintain supporting documentation.

D.

be saved in a single separate file with hard copies stored in a fireproof cabinet.

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendation regarding "tipping off," which of the following statements accurately describes the obligations of reporting entities?

A.

Reporting entities are prohibited from disclosing to clients or third parties that a suspicious activity report (SAR) has been filed or that an investigation is ongoing

B.

Reporting entities can share general information about suspicious activities internally within the organization without compromising confidentiality

C.

Reporting entities must inform their clients if a suspicious activity report (SAR) has been filed, as part of maintaining transparency in customer relations

D.

Reporting entities are allowed to discuss suspicious activities with clients if it helps clarify a situation before submitting a suspicious activity report

An internal audit team is reviewing the anti-financial crime (AFC) program of its firm.

Which of the following attributes of the third line of defense would be most critical to ensure unbiased and effective oversight?

A.

Consistency of approach

B.

Periodic training of the function

C.

Qualification of the team

D.

Independent testing

When under a regulator's consent order or similar action, who at an organization is ultimately accountable for the remediation of any violations of applicable AML/CFT laws and regulations?

A.

Designated AML compliance officer

B.

Chief executive officer

C.

Chief operating officer

D.

Board of directors

A compliance officer is completing a case and has determined that the events do not merit filing a suspicious activity report (SAR).

Which of the following should be included in the case notes to justify not filing a SAR? (Choose two.)

A.

Who made the decision not to file the SAR

B.

Why the officer deemed that the case did not merit filing a SAR

C.

How much money was involved in the case

D.

How the money flowed through the institution

E.

When the unusual activity occurred

One key aspect of promoting an enterprise-wide compliance culture within a financial institution is that the:

A.

Relevant information should be shared throughout the organization.

B.

Revenue-generating business sectors should have precedence over compliance.

C.

First line of defense should establish its own policies independently.

D.

Cost of compliance should increase proportionately to revenues.

The Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is responsible for:

A.

Ensuring an effective export control and treaty compliance system

B.

Administering and enforcing economic and trade sanctions

C.

Designating jurisdictions as primary money laundering concerns

D.

Managing trade agreements between the US and foreign countries

What is the primary purpose of anti-bribery and corruption regulations?

A.

To prohibit the payment of anything of value by persons or entities to government officials or employees of state-owned enterprises to obtain an improper business advantage

B.

To prohibit the conversion of illegally obtained money into legal money by senior government figures

C.

To protect against election interference by corrupt foreign adversaries facilitated by illicit funds

D.

To protect against the use of illegal means by senior political figures to avoid paying taxes

Which of the following conditions contribute to a politically exposed person (PEP) posing greater risk than a typical high-risk bank customer? (Select Two.)

A.

The family members and close associates of PEPs may be involved in illicit activities.

B.

PEPs are granted unlimited credit and financial immunity under international banking regulations.

C.

PEPs may exploit embassy activities to conceal bribery and corruption transactions.

D.

PEPs can have illegitimate fund sources but are legally protected from having their accounts closed for activities outside a bank's risk appetite.

Which money laundering risks are posed by the misuse of trust and asset management services? (Select Three.)

A.

Concealing sources of funds

B.

Allowing for third-party custody safekeeping of funds

C.

Adding a layer of anonymity to transactions

D.

Concealing true legal and beneficial owners

E.

Establishing escrow accounts for real estate transactions

Which action should a financial institution take when it receives a grand-jury subpoena regarding a customer?

A.

Make copies of the customer's documents and submit the originals to the enforcement agency

B.

Notify the customer being investigated before submitting documents

C.

Keep the customer's accounts open at the enforcement agency's verbal request

D.

Have the institution's assigned legal counsel review the subpoena

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Total 313 questions
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