CFE-Law ACFE Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE) - Law Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

This question tests your knowledge of Uncategorized.

the question asks about the core concepts in this area.

The correct answer is A: Counterclaim.

This question tests your understanding of key fraud examination concepts and legal principles.

This question tests your knowledge of Domain 1.

In the context of Overview of the Legal System, specifically relating to criminal, the question asks about the core concepts in this area.

The correct answer is B: A witness testifies that they saw the defendant take the money.

This question relates to the legal system framework. Understanding the distinction between different legal systems and processes is crucial for fraud examiners. The correct answer accurately describes the relationship between different legal entities and their jurisdictions.

This question tests your knowledge of Domain 2.

In the context of The Law Related to Fraud, specifically relating to conspiracy, the question asks about the core concepts in this area.

The correct answer is C: The defendant knew all the details or objectives of the conspiracy.

This question addresses fraud-related laws. The correct answer identifies the proper legal concept or violation that applies in the described scenario. Fraud examiners must understand these legal principles to properly identify and address fraudulent activities.

The correct answer is A. Adversarial process. In an adversarial system, the parties are primarily responsible for investigating the case, gathering evidence, presenting proof, and examining witnesses. Their lawyers drive the presentation of the case, while the judge usually serves as a neutral decision-maker who oversees procedure, rules on objections, and applies the law. This description matches the facts in the question exactly.

By contrast, an inquisitorial process generally gives the judge a much more active role in developing the factual record, directing the inquiry, and often controlling much of the witness examination. That is why option B is not the best fit. Option C, civil law process, refers to a broad family of legal systems and is not the precise procedural label for the fact pattern described. Option D, unitary process, is not the recognized term used here. The CFE Law materials treat this distinction as a fundamental comparison between the two major procedural models: adversarial systems rely heavily on party presentation, while inquisitorial systems rely more heavily on judicial investigation. Therefore, because the parties gather the evidence and conduct the questioning, A is the most accurate answer. The CFE exam outline also distinguishes these procedural frameworks within the Law section.

This question tests your knowledge of Domain 1.

In the context of Overview of the Legal System, specifically relating to civil, the question asks about civil lawsuits in most jurisdictions is CORRECT, CORRECT.

The correct answer is B: Civil lawsuits begin with the filing of a pleading, usually in the jurisdiction in which the defendant resides or where the claim arose.

This question relates to the legal system framework. Understanding the distinction between different legal systems and processes is crucial for fraud examiners. The correct answer accurately describes the relationship between different legal entities and their jurisdictions.

Under the ACFE Fraud Examiners Manual, Law Section, specifically in the Money Laundering chapter , money services businesses MSBs are non-bank financial institutions that provide services such as currency exchange, money transmission, check cashing, issuing or selling money orders, and dealing in stored value. These entities are specifically recognized in anti-money laundering frameworks because of their exposure to cash-based and cross-border transactions.

A currency exchange clearly falls within the definition of an MSB because it engages in the exchange of one currency for another, often involving large volumes of cash transactions. Such businesses are subject to anti-money laundering compliance requirements, including customer identification procedures, recordkeeping, and reporting of suspicious transactions.

Depository institutions, including commercial or investment banks, are generally regulated as banks rather than MSBs. Furthermore, MSBs are often considered higher risk for money laundering due to the volume of cash transactions and international transfers they process. While MSBs are regulated, they do not typically have stricter regulations than full-service banks, which are subject to comprehensive prudential and AML supervision.

Therefore, the most accurate statement is that a currency exchange is classified as an MSB.

This question tests your knowledge of Domain 6.

In the context of Tax Fraud, specifically relating to tax evasion, the question asks about her company ' s finances to her country ' s taxing authority, MOST LIKELY.

The correct answer is B: A falsified tax deduction scheme.

This question focuses on tax fraud concepts. The correct answer distinguishes between legal tax avoidance and illegal tax evasion, or identifies specific tax evasion schemes. Tax fraud investigations require specialized knowledge of tax laws and common evasion techniques.

The correct answer is C. In most inquisitorial jurisdictions, expert witnesses are often appointed or closely supervised by the court, and the judge typically has a central role in defining the expert’s mission, the materials the expert may review, and the issues to be addressed. Even so, the parties are usually allowed to challenge the expert in meaningful ways, including raising concerns about the expert’s bias, neutrality, qualifications, methodology, or conclusions. That makes C the most accurate statement.

Option A is incorrect because, in inquisitorial systems, the parties do not ordinarily control the scope of the expert’s authority in the same way they often do in adversarial systems; the judge commonly exercises that control. Option B is too absolute because although the judge plays the dominant role, it is not generally true that only the judge may question the expert’s analysis. Option D is also inaccurate because the ultimate decision about the weight to assign to expert testimony is generally for the judge, not jointly for the judge and the parties.

Thus, the best statement is that the parties are usually permitted to raise objections concerning the expert’s possible biases, making C the correct choice.

The correct answer is B. The CFE Manual states that under the ICCPR, everyone accused of a crime shall be presumed innocent until proven guilty according to law. This is one of the core due-process protections recognized in the criminal justice section of the Law materials.

Option A is incorrect because the ICCPR protects the right to a fair and public hearing, not a trial without public disclosure of the results. Option C is also incorrect because the Manual states that the ICCPR gives a convicted person the right to have the conviction and sentence reviewed by a higher tribunal, but it does not provide for unlimited appeals. Option D is too broad because release pending trial is not presented as an automatic right in the way presumption of innocence is. For CFE purposes, the key takeaway is that criminal defendants under the ICCPR are entitled to several important safeguards, and one of the most fundamental is that they must be treated as innocent unless and until guilt is proven according to law. Therefore, B is the correct answer.

This question tests your knowledge of Domain 5.

In the context of Money Laundering, specifically relating to money laundering, anti-money laundering, FATF, the question asks about FATF, AML.

The correct answer is C: Is required to file a report of suspicious transactions with appropriate authorities because the employees suspect money laundering violations.

This question addresses money laundering concepts. The correct answer correctly identifies the stage, method, or regulatory framework related to money laundering or anti-money laundering efforts. Understanding these processes is critical for fraud examiners working to detect and prevent financial crimes. Money laundering typically involves three stages: placement (introducing illegal funds into the financial system), layering (creating complex transactions to hide the source), and integration (returning the funds to the launderer in an apparently legitimate form).

This question tests your knowledge of Domain 8.

In the context of Criminal Prosecutions, specifically relating to deferred prosecution, the question asks about BEST.

The correct answer is B: Probation.

This question addresses criminal prosecution concepts. The correct answer correctly identifies aspects of criminal proceedings, burdens of proof, or sentencing options. Understanding the criminal justice process is essential for fraud examiners working with law enforcement. Probation is a sentencing option where the offender ' s sentence is suspended in return for their promise of good behavior, allowing them to remain in the community under supervision rather than serving time in prison.

This question tests your knowledge of Domain 4.

In the context of Securities Fraud, specifically relating to securities, the question asks about the core concepts in this area.

The correct answer is A: True.

This question tests knowledge of securities fraud and regulation. The correct answer accurately describes the role of regulatory bodies, securities laws, or fraud schemes in this context. Securities fraud is a specialized area requiring knowledge of specific regulations and oversight mechanisms.

This question tests your knowledge of Domain 8.

In the context of Criminal Prosecutions, specifically relating to deferred prosecution, the question asks about NOT.

The correct answer is A: To postpone prosecution until a company conducts an extensive internal investigation.

This question addresses criminal prosecution concepts. The correct answer correctly identifies aspects of criminal proceedings, burdens of proof, or sentencing options. Understanding the criminal justice process is essential for fraud examiners working with law enforcement.

The correct answer is A. A fraudulent conveyance. The CFE Manual states that debtors often attempt to conceal assets by transferring them to another person or company, and a transfer is considered a fraudulent conveyance if its purpose is to hinder, delay, or defraud a creditor. In this question, Bob transferred one of the company’s luxury vehicles to his wife just one week before the business filed for bankruptcy. That timing strongly suggests an attempt to move valuable property out of the reach of creditors before the bankruptcy estate is formed.

Option B is too broad because “fraudulent bankruptcy” is not the specific scheme described. Option C is not the standard label used in the Manual for this kind of transfer. Option D, a planned bustout, refers to a different scheme involving building up credit with suppliers and then collapsing the business without payment. The facts here center on the transfer of an asset to a related party to keep it away from creditors, which is the classic definition of a fraudulent conveyance under the CFE Law materials. Accordingly, A is the most accurate answer.

According to the ACFE Fraud Examiners Manual, Law Section, particularly under The Criminal Justice System and Punishment , criminal forfeiture is a penalty imposed upon conviction that requires a defendant to surrender property derived from or used in the commission of a crime. Criminal forfeiture is in personam, meaning it is directed against the convicted defendant as part of the sentencing process. The objective is to deprive offenders of the proceeds and instrumentalities of their criminal conduct.

In option B, the defendant is ordered to transfer a vehicle she received as a bribe to the government. Because the vehicle constitutes proceeds or benefits obtained through criminal activity, requiring its transfer to the government is a classic example of criminal forfeiture.

By contrast, incarceration is a custodial sentence, a fine is a monetary penalty paid to the government, and restitution requires repayment to a victim. While restitution and fines are financial sanctions, they do not specifically involve forfeiture of property tied to the criminal offense.

Therefore, the scenario that best represents criminal forfeiture is the transfer of the vehicle received as a bribe to the government.

This question tests your knowledge of Domain 7.

In the context of Individual Rights During Examinations, specifically relating to employee, the question asks about IBC.

The correct answer is A: True.

This question relates to individual rights during examinations. The correct answer accurately describes the legal protections, obligations, or privacy considerations that apply in workplace investigations. Fraud examiners must balance investigative needs with legal protections for individuals.

This question tests your knowledge of Domain 1.

In the context of Overview of the Legal System, specifically relating to criminal, the question asks about the core concepts in this area.

The correct answer is D: The employee was acting within the scope of their employment.

This question relates to the legal system framework. Understanding the distinction between different legal systems and processes is crucial for fraud examiners. The correct answer accurately describes the relationship between different legal entities and their jurisdictions.

This question tests your knowledge of Domain 1.

In the context of Overview of the Legal System, specifically relating to common law, the question asks about BEST.

The correct answer is A: When litigation is reasonably anticipated.

This question relates to the legal system framework. Understanding the distinction between different legal systems and processes is crucial for fraud examiners. The correct answer accurately describes the relationship between different legal entities and their jurisdictions.

According to the ACFE Fraud Examiners Manual, Law Section, particularly in the Money Laundering chapter discussing International Anti-Money Laundering Efforts and the FATF Recommendations , financial institutions are required to file suspicious transaction reports STRs when they suspect that funds are the proceeds of criminal activity or are related to money laundering or terrorist financing.

The conduct described—purchasing bearer instruments with cash in amounts just below mandatory reporting thresholds—is commonly known as structuring. Structuring is a recognized money laundering technique designed to evade currency transaction reporting requirements. Under the FATF Recommendations, financial institutions must not rely solely on monetary thresholds to trigger reporting obligations. Instead, they are required to file a suspicious transaction report whenever there is reasonable suspicion of illicit activity, regardless of the amount involved.

A cash transaction report is typically triggered by transactions exceeding a specific monetary threshold, but structuring to avoid that threshold does not eliminate the reporting obligation. If employees suspect money laundering, the bank is obligated to file a suspicious transaction report with the appropriate authorities.

Therefore, the correct answer is that the bank is required to file a report of suspicious transactions because the employees suspect money laundering violations.