DVA-C02 Amazon Web Services AWS Certified Developer - Associate Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

Amazon CloudFront field-level encryption is specifically designed to protect sensitive fields in HTTP requests. It allows CloudFront to encrypt specific request fields at the edge using asymmetric encryption , ensuring that only authorized application components that possess the private key can decrypt the data.

This approach ensures that sensitive fields remain encrypted throughout transit and processing, while non-sensitive fields can still be accessed normally. This satisfies the requirement that only specific parts of the application can decrypt the data.

Field-level encryption is a native CloudFront capability and is far more secure and scalable than implementing custom encryption logic in Lambda@Edge or Lambda functions. AWS documentation emphasizes using built-in CloudFront security features to minimize operational overhead and reduce the risk of cryptographic implementation errors.

Options A and B introduce unnecessary complexity and custom cryptographic handling, which AWS generally discourages when managed services are available. Option D only secures transport and access control and does not encrypt individual data fields.

Therefore, CloudFront field-level encryption with asymmetric keys is the AWS-recommended and correct solution.

The objects are “rarely accessed after 1 week” but must remain immediately available at all times. That means the storage class must support millisecond access without a restore process. S3 Standard-Infrequent Access (Standard-IA) is designed for exactly this: lower storage cost than S3 Standard, while still providing rapid access when needed.

With option B, an S3 Lifecycle rule transitions objects from S3 Standard to S3 Standard-IA after 7 days. This aligns perfectly with the usage pattern: frequent access initially, then infrequent access after a week, while keeping immediate availability.

Option C (S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval) is not appropriate because Glacier classes are archival. Access typically requires a restore operation and retrieval time (minutes to hours), which violates “immediately available at all times.”

Option A expires objects, which deletes them after 7 days—this contradicts the requirement to keep objects available.

Option D is irrelevant because delete markers exist only when versioning is enabled. The bucket does not have versioning enabled, so this rule would not help.

Therefore, transitioning to S3 Standard-IA after 7 days is the correct cost-optimized solution while maintaining immediate availability.

AWS Amplify is a set of tools and services that enables developers to build and deploy full-stack web and mobile applications that are powered by AWS. AWS Amplify supports hosting static websites on Amazon S3 and Amazon CloudFront, with HTTPS enabled by default. AWS Amplify also integrates with various version control systems, such as AWS CodeCommit, Bitbucket, and GitHub, and allows developers to connect different branches to different environments. AWS Amplify automatically builds and deploys the website whenever code changes are merged to a connected branch, enabling phased releases with minimal operational overhead. Reference: AWS Amplify Console

IAM Roles for EC2: IAM roles are the recommended way to provide AWS credentials to applications running on EC2 instances. Here ' s how this works:

You create an IAM role with the necessary permissions to access the target S3 bucket.

You create an instance profile and associate the IAM role with this profile.

When launching the EC2 instance, you attach this instance profile.

Temporary Security Credentials: When the application on the EC2 instance needs to access S3, it doesn ' t directly use access keys. Instead, the AWS SDK running on the instance retrieves temporary security credentials associated with the role. These are rotated automatically by AWS.

IAM instance profiles are containers for IAM roles that can be associated with EC2 instances. An IAM role is a set of permissions that grant access to AWS resources. An IAM role can be used to allow an EC2 instance to access an S3 bucket by including the appropriate permissions in the role’s policy. The S3:ListBucket permission allows listing the objects in an S3 bucket. By updating the IAM instance profile with this permission, the application on the EC2 instance can retrieve the objects from the S3 bucket and display them to the user. Reference: Using an IAM role to grant permissions to applications running on Amazon EC2 instances

These solutions will mitigate the error most cost-effectively because they do not require increasing the provisioned throughput of the DynamoDB table or creating additional resources. Exponential backoff is a retry strategy that increases the waiting time between retries to reduce the number of requests sent to DynamoDB. The AWS SDKs for DynamoDB implement exponential backoff by default and also provide other features such as automatic pagination and encryption. Increasing the read and write throughput of the DynamoDB table, creating a DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) cluster, or creating a second DynamoDB table will incur additional costs and complexity.

This solution will meet the requirements by using AWS Serverless Application Model (AWS SAM) templates and gradual deployments to automatically test the Lambda functions. AWS SAM templates are configuration files that define serverless applications and resources such as Lambda functions. Gradual deployments are a feature of AWS SAM that enable deploying new versions of Lambda functions incrementally, shifting traffic gradually, and performing validation tests during deployment. The developer can enable gradual deployments through AWS SAM templates by adding a DeploymentPreference property to each Lambda function resource in the template. The developer can set the deployment preference type to Canary10Percent30Minutes, which means that 10 percent of traffic will be shifted to the new version of the Lambda function for 30 minutes before shifting 100 percent of traffic. The developer can also use hooks to test the deployment, which are custom Lambda functions that run before or after traffic shifting and perform validation tests or rollback actions.

The solution that will meet the requirements most cost-effectively is to store the smart meter readings in an Amazon DynamoDB table. Create a composite key by using the location ID and timestamp columns. Use the columns to filter on the customers’ data. This way, the company can leverage the scalability, performance, and low latency of DynamoDB to store and retrieve the smart meter readings. The company can also use the composite key to query the data by location ID and timestamp efficiently. The other options either involve more expensive or less scalable services, or do not provide low-latency access to the current usage.

AWS Secrets Manager is specifically designed for sensitive information like database credentials. It supports automatic rotation and cross-account access. Using the " AWS Parameters and Secrets Lambda Extension " is the modern, high-performance way to retrieve secrets. It caches the secret locally in the Lambda execution environment, reducing latency and cost (API call volume) while ensuring the credentials are not stored in plaintext in environment variables or source code.

The correct answer is A. Add a configuration file in TOML format to group configuration entries to every environment. Add a table for each testing and staging environment. Deploy updates to the environments by using the sam deploy command and the --config-env flag that corresponds to the each environment.

A. Add a configuration file in TOML format to group configuration entries to every environment. Add a table for each testing and staging environment. Deploy updates to the environments by using the sam deploy command and the --config-env flag that corresponds to the each environment. This is correct. This solution will meet the requirements with the least development effort, because it uses a feature of the AWS SAM CLI that supports a project-level configuration file that can be used to configure AWS SAM CLI command parameter values1. The configuration file can have multiple environments, each with its own set of parameter values, such as stack name, region, capabilities, and more2. The developer can use the --config-env option to specify which environment to use when deploying the application3. This way, the developer can avoid creating multiple templates or scripts, or manually overriding parameters for each environment.

B. Create additional AWS SAM templates for each testing and staging environment. Write a custom shell script that uses the sam deploy command and the --template-file flag to deploy updates to the environments. This is incorrect. This solution will not meet the requirements with the least development effort, because it requires creating and maintaining multiple templates and scripts for each environment. This can introduce duplication, inconsistency, and complexity in the deployment process.

C. Create one AWS SAM configuration file that has default parameters. Perform updates to the testing and staging environments by using the —parameter-overrides flag in the AWS SAM CLI and the parameters that the updates will override. This is incorrect. This solution will not meet the requirements with the least development effort, because it requires manually specifying and overriding parameters for each environment every time the developer deploys the application. This can be error-prone, tedious, and inefficient.

D. Use the existing AWS SAM template. Add additional parameters to configure specific attributes for the serverless function and database table resources that are in each environment. Deploy updates to the testing and staging environments by using the sam deploy command. This is incorrect. This solution will not meet the requirements with the least development effort, because it requires modifying the existing template and adding complexity to the resource definitions for each environment. This can also make it difficult to manage and track changes across different environments.

Problem: CloudFormation updates reset Parameter Store parameters, disrupting application behavior.

Deletion Policy: CloudFormation has a deletion policy that controls resource behavior when a stack is deleted or updated. The ' Retain ' policy instructs CloudFormation to preserve a resource ' s current state.

Least Development Effort: This solution involves a simple CloudFormation template modification, requiring minimal code changes.

Amazon API Gateway is a service that enables developers to create, publish, maintain, monitor, and secure APIs at any scale. The developer can define a development stage on the API Gateway API and instruct the other developers to point the endpoints to the development stage. This way, the developer can provide beta access to the new version of the API without affecting customers who use the production stage. This solution will meet the requirements with the least operational overhead.

Amazon Cognito User Pools: A managed user directory service, simplifying user registration and login.

Social Identity Providers: Cognito supports integration with external providers (e.g., Google, Facebook), reducing development effort.

IAM Roles for Authorization: Cognito-managed IAM roles grant fine-grained access to AWS resources (like Lambda functions).

Operational Overhead: Cognito minimizes the need to manage user identities and credentials independently.

The correct answer is C because the requirement is for a live feed of log events in near real time , filtered to show only lines that begin with “ERROR.” The live tail feature for AWS Lambda and CloudWatch Logs is specifically intended for this kind of operational debugging. It allows developers to watch logs as they are generated and apply filtering so they can focus only on relevant messages during active troubleshooting.

This is particularly suitable because the function is already in production , and the company wants immediate visibility into timeout-related issues without waiting for a full batch of logs to accumulate. With live tail and a filter expression for ERROR , the developer can observe only the important log lines as new invocations happen, which speeds up root-cause analysis.

Option A is not the best answer because CloudWatch Logs Insights is powerful for querying logs, but it is primarily used for searching and analyzing logs after they have been collected, not as a continuous near-real-time live stream. Option B is incorrect because a subscription filter is used to forward logs to another destination such as Lambda, Kinesis, or Firehose; it is not the simplest way to give an operator a live interactive filtered view. A metric filter also creates metrics from log patterns but does not present the actual live log lines for review. Option D is incorrect because Amazon Athena is not used directly for querying CloudWatch Logs in real-time operational troubleshooting.

Therefore, the best solution is to use live tail with an ERROR filter to inspect relevant Lambda log events as they occur.

Amazon Q Developer Pro is an AWS-native, generative AI–powered development assistant designed to help developers write, test, and review code directly within supported IDEs such as Visual Studio Code and JetBrains. AWS documentation highlights Amazon Q Developer Pro as a productivity tool that accelerates development without requiring additional infrastructure .

Amazon Q Developer Pro can automatically generate unit tests , suggest improvements, identify potential bugs, and provide context-aware code reviews . Because it integrates directly into the IDE, developers receive immediate feedback during development, which shortens feedback loops and improves overall code quality.

Options A, B, and C require additional tooling, scripting, or manual processes. While CodeBuild and CodeGuru Reviewer are valuable services, they introduce pipeline complexity and do not provide real-time, IDE-integrated assistance for writing tests and reviewing code.

Amazon Q Developer Pro uniquely satisfies all stated requirements:

No infrastructure to manage

Native IDE integration

Automated unit test generation

AI-assisted code reviews

Therefore, using Amazon Q Developer Pro is the most efficient and modern AWS-recommended solution.

When a Lambda function is configured to run inside a VPC, it receives ENIs in the selected subnets and uses those subnets’ routing to reach other networks. If the function is placed in private subnets (common when it needs to access an RDS database in private subnets), it typically does not have a direct route to the internet. As a result, outbound calls to public external APIs will fail unless the VPC provides a controlled egress path.

The standard AWS networking pattern for private-subnet internet access is a NAT gateway (or NAT instance) deployed in a public subnet , with a route from the private subnet(s) to the NAT gateway (0.0.0.0/0 → NAT). The NAT gateway then uses an internet gateway attached to the VPC to reach the public internet while keeping the Lambda function (and the RDS database) in private address space. This resolves the connectivity issue while maintaining the security posture of private subnets.

Option A is not the solution: Lambda automatically provisions ENIs for VPC-enabled functions; manually provisioning an ENI does not provide internet access. Option C (security group outbound rules) is necessary but not sufficient—security groups control allowed traffic, but without a proper route to the internet (via NAT), the packets still cannot reach external endpoints. Option D (gateway VPC endpoint) is for AWS services like S3 and DynamoDB (gateway endpoints), not for arbitrary public internet APIs, and “in a public subnet” is not how gateway endpoints are used; they are associated with route tables.

Therefore, the correct solution is B : add a NAT gateway in a public subnet and update private subnet route tables so the new Lambda function can reach external public APIs while still accessing the private RDS database.

Amazon CloudFront is a global content delivery network (CDN) designed to deliver static and streaming content with low latency and high throughput . AWS documentation explicitly recommends CloudFront for media streaming and high-request-rate workloads.

By placing CloudFront in front of Amazon S3, video content is cached at edge locations close to end users. This dramatically reduces latency, minimizes buffering, and offloads request volume from the S3 bucket. CloudFront is built to handle sudden traffic spikes and supports tens of thousands of requests per second per edge location.

Route 53 routing policies (Option A) control DNS resolution but do not cache content. Cross-Region Replication (Option B) improves regional availability but does not provide edge caching or streaming optimization. S3 Intelligent-Tiering (Option C) optimizes storage cost, not performance.

Therefore, using CloudFront with S3 as the origin provides the largest and most immediate performance improvement.

This solution allows the fastest response for the query because it enables the query to use a single partition key value (the Product ID) and a range of sort key values (the Product Rating) to find the matching items. A global secondary index (GSI) is an index that has a partition key and an optional sort key that are different from those on the base table. A GSI can be created at any time and can be queried or scanned independently of the base table. A local secondary index (LSI) is an index that has the same partition key as the base table, but a different sort key. An LSI can only be created when the base table is created and must be queried together with the base table partition key. Using a GSI with Product ID as the partition key and Review ID as the sort key will not allow the query to use a range of sort key values to find the highest ratings. Using an LSI with Product ID as the partition key and Product Rating as the sort key will not work because Product ID is not the partition key of the base table. Using an LSI with Review ID as the partition key and Product ID as the sort key will not allow the query to use a single partition key value to find the matching items.

This solution allows the developer to troubleshoot the failure by capturing unprocessed events in a queue for further analysis. Dead Letter Queues (DLQs) are queues that store messages that could not be processed by a service, such as Lambda, for various reasons, such as configuration errors, throttling limits, or permissions issues. The developer can configure DLQs for Lambda functions by sending events to either an Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS) queue or an Amazon Simple Notification Service (SNS) topic. The developer can then inspect the messages in the queue or topic to identify and fix the root cause of the failure. Configuring AWS CloudTrail logging will not capture invocation failures for asynchronous Lambda invocations, but only record API calls made by or on behalf of Lambda. Configuring Amazon Simple Workflow Service (SWF) or AWS Config will not process any direct unprocessed events, but require additional integration and configuration.

S3 Glacier Instant Retrieval is designed for long-lived data that is rarely accessed but requires millisecond retrieval when needed (meeting the " instant access " requirement for the first 90 days). After 90 days, moving to S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval (formerly Standard) is more cost-effective because it has lower storage costs, though it has retrieval times of minutes to hours (meeting the " more than 10 minutes " requirement).

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

The requirement is to query records by CustomerID, which is not the current partition key (OrderID). To achieve this efficiently:

Option A: Create a GSI with CustomerID as the Partition Key:

A Global Secondary Index (GSI) allows developers to create a different partition key and optional sort key for querying the data.

By creating a GSI with CustomerID as the partition key, the developer can query the table efficiently using CustomerID as the primary lookup key.

This avoids scanning the entire table and matches the requirement.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

Option B: Using CustomerID as a sort key for the GSI and performing a scan operation is inefficient. Queries are optimized, but scans are not.

Option C and D: Local Secondary Indexes (LSI) are only valid when the partition key remains the same as the base table. Since OrderID is the base table’s partition key, using CustomerID as the partition key or sort key in an LSI is not valid.

Amazon API Gateway mock integrations allow developers to return static or templated responses without invoking any backend services . AWS documentation specifically recommends mock integrations for early API development and testing , when backend implementations are unavailable or incomplete.

With mock integrations, API Gateway itself generates responses based on mapping templates. This enables frontend and integration testing teams to validate request formats, response schemas, authentication, and error handling without deploying compute resources or writing application logic.

Options B, C, and D all require additional infrastructure or application logic, increasing engineering effort. Mock integrations require no backend code , no servers, and minimal configuration.

Therefore, using API Gateway mock integrations is the fastest and lowest-effort solution.

Why Option B is Correct:A customer-managed AWS Key Management Service (KMS) key allows for encryption at rest and provides the ability to rotate the key on demand. This ensures compliance with security requirements for key management and database encryption.

RDS integrates natively with AWS KMS, allowing the use of a customer-managed key for encrypting data at rest.

Key rotation can be managed directly in AWS KMS without needing custom solutions.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

Option A: AWS KMS managed encryption keys (AWS-owned keys) do not support key rotation on demand.

Option C & D: Storing keys in AWS Secrets Manager with custom rotation is not a recommended approach for database encryption. AWS KMS is designed specifically for secure key management and encryption.

AWS Documentation References:

Encrypting Amazon RDS Resources

AWS Key Management Service (KMS)

S3Bucket and S3Key: These properties in a CloudFormation AWS::Lambda::Function resource specify the location of the function ' s code in S3.

Least Development Effort: This solution minimizes code changes, relying on CloudFormation to reference the existing S3 deployment package.

Distributed Tracing with X-Ray: X-Ray helps visualize request paths and identify bottlenecks in applications distributed across Regions.

Region Annotations (Automatic for AWS Services): X-Ray automatically adds a Region annotation to segments representing calls to AWS services. This aids in tracing cross-Region traffic.

Region Annotations (Manual for User-Defined): For segments representing calls to user-defined services in different Regions, the developer needs to add the Region annotation manually to enable comprehensive tracing.

This solution allows the developer to overcome the limit for the combined maximum of characters for environment variables in AWS CodeBuild. AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store provides secure, hierarchical storage for configuration data management and secrets management. The developer can store large numbers of environment variables as parameters in Parameter Store and reference them in the buildspec file using parameter references. Adding export LC_ALL=“en_US.utf8” command to the pre_build section will not affect the environment variables limit. Using Amazon Cognito or an Amazon S3 bucket to store key-value pairs for environment variables will require additional configuration and integration.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (AWS Verified – 250–300 Words)

When an Amazon S3 bucket is configured with default encryption using SSE-KMS, AWS Key Management Service (KMS) plays an active role in every PutObject request. Although the IAM user already has the s3:PutObject permission, this alone is not sufficient when SSE-KMS is enabled.

According to AWS documentation, when a client uploads an object to an S3 bucket encrypted with SSE-KMS, Amazon S3 must call AWS KMS on behalf of the caller to generate a unique data encryption key. This operation requires the kms:GenerateDataKey permission on the KMS key used for encryption. If this permission is missing, the PutObject request fails with an Access Denied error—even though S3 permissions appear correct.

AWS explicitly states that IAM principals uploading objects to SSE-KMS–encrypted buckets must be allowed to use the KMS key. At a minimum, the following KMS permissions are required:

kms:GenerateDataKey

(Implicitly) access allowed by the KMS key policy

Option C correctly resolves the issue by granting the IAM user permission to generate a data key via AWS KMS, enabling successful encryption during the upload process.

Option A is invalid because s3:EncryptionConfiguration is not required for object uploads.

Option B is unnecessary because the IAM user already has s3:PutObject.

Option D is incorrect because ACLs are not used to control KMS encryption permissions and are discouraged by AWS best practices.

The correct answer is B because Amazon S3 event notifications can directly invoke an AWS Lambda function whenever a supported event occurs, such as ObjectCreated . This is the simplest and most infrastructure-efficient design for processing files that are uploaded to an S3 bucket. Since the requirement is to invoke the function with the least amount of AWS infrastructure , using the native direct integration between S3 and Lambda is the best choice.

AWS documentation explains that S3 can publish event notifications for object-level operations and send those notifications directly to Lambda. This allows the developer to build an event-driven workflow in which each newly uploaded project status file automatically triggers processing logic. There is no need for polling, scheduled scans, or intermediary messaging services unless there are additional requirements such as buffering, fan-out, or decoupling.

Option A is incorrect because polling the bucket every 5 minutes with EventBridge is less efficient and adds unnecessary delay and complexity. Option C is incorrect because introducing an SNS topic adds another infrastructure component when direct invocation is already supported. Option D is also incorrect because using SQS introduces a queue and polling behavior, which increases operational overhead and infrastructure count.

The direct S3-to-Lambda pattern is a common AWS serverless best practice for file processing workloads. It minimizes moving parts, reduces latency, and simplifies permissions and maintenance. Therefore, the developer should configure an S3 event notification for object creation events to invoke the Lambda function directly.

So, B is the correct answer.