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200-301 Cisco Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your Cisco 200-301 Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 1197 questions

Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?

A.

to route traffic on the internet

B.

to provide flexibility in the IP network design

C.

to provide overlapping address space with another network

D.

to limit the number of hosts on the network

Refer to the exhibit.

The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used. Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF process. How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are different?

A.

The router chooses the route with the oldest age.

B.

The router load-balances traffic over all routes to the destination.

C.

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest MAC address.

D.

The router chooses the next hop with the lowest IP address.

Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?

A.

when a gateway protocol is required that support more than two Cisco devices for redundancy

B.

to enable normal operations to continue after a member failure without requiring a change In a host ARP cache

C.

to ensure that the spanning-tree forwarding path to the gateway is loop-free

D.

to interoperate normally with all vendors and provide additional security features for Cisco devices

What is a zero-day exploit?

A.

It is when a new network vulnerability is discovered before a fix is available

B.

It is when the perpetrator inserts itself in a conversation between two parties and captures or alters data.

C.

It is when the network is saturated with malicious traffic that overloads resources and bandwidth

D.

It is when an attacker inserts malicious code into a SOL server.

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23.0. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?

A.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.13.3 121

B.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 100

C.

ip route 192.168.23.0 265.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 121

D.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3

Refer to the exhibit.

What is represented by "R1" and "SW1" within the JSON output?

A.

key

B.

array

C.

value

D.

object

Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abod-bod on voice VLAN 4?

A.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd

B.

switchport port-security mac-address abed.abed.abed vlan 4

C.

switchport port-security mac-address sticky abcd.abcd.abcd vlan 4

D.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd vlan voice

Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?

A.

Select PSK under Authentication Key Management

B.

Select WPA+WPA2 on Layer 2 Security

C.

Select Static-WEP + 802.1X on Layer 2 Security

D.

Select WPA Policy with TKIP Encryption

E.

Select 802.1X from under Authentication Key Management

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is updating the configuration on router R1 to connect a new branch office to the company network R2 has been configured correctly. Which command must the engineer configure so that devices at the new site communicate with the main office?

A.

ip route 172.25.25 0 255 255 255.0 192.168.2.1

B.

ip route 172.25.25 1 255 255 255 255 g0/1

C.

ip route 172.25.25.0.255.255.255.0.192.168.2.2

What is a feature of WPA?

A.

802.1x authentication

B.

preshared key

C.

TKIP/MIC encryption

D.

small Wi-Fi application

Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?

A.

Cisco DNA Center leverages SNMPv3 tor encrypted management, and traditional campus management uses SNMPv2.

B.

Cisco DNA Center automates HTTPS for secure web access, and traditional campus management uses HTTP.

C.

Cisco DNA Center leverages APIs, and traditional campus management requires manual data gathering.

D.

Cisco DNA Center automates SSH access for encrypted entry, and SSH Is absent from traditional campus management.

What is the difference between SNMP traps and SNMP polling?

A.

SNMP traps are used for proactive monitoring, and SNMP polling is used for reactive monitoring.

B.

SNMP traps send periodic updates via the MIB, and SNMP polling sends data on demand.

C.

SNMP traps are initiated by the network management system, and network devices initiate SNMP polling.

D.

SNMP traps are initiated using a push model at the network device, and SNMP polling is initiated at the server.

Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?

A.

Generic Router Encapsulation (GRE)

B.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C.

Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN)

D.

Point-to-Point Protocol

A manager asks a network engineer to recommend a cloud service model so that employees do not spend time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

A.

Infrastructure-as-a-service

B.

software-as-a-service

C.

business process as a service

D.

platform-as-a-service

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

What is an Ansible inventory?

A.

file that defines the target devices upon which commands and tasks are executed

B.

unit of Python code to be executed within Ansible

C.

collection of actions to perform on target devices, expressed in YAML format

D.

device with Ansible installed that manages target devices

Refer to the exhibit.

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a static password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

A.

Crable PSKEnable iod 1s

B.

Select WPA2 PolicyDisable PMFEnable PSK

C.

Select WPA PolicyEnable PSK

D.

Select WPA PolicySelect WRAS Policy

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

A.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID.

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets are flowing from 192.168 10.1 to the destination at IP address 192.168.20 75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?

A.

10.10101

B.

10.10.10.11

C.

10.10.10.12

D.

10.101014

Which Cisco proprietary protocol ensures traffic recovers immediately, transparently, and automatically when edge devices or access circuits fail?

A.

SLB

B.

FHRP

C.

VRRP

D.

HSRP

Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

A.

An ICMP connection has been built

B.

A certificate has expired

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A TCP connection has been torn down

Drag and drop the device behaviors from the left onto the matching HSRP slate on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator must configure a floating sialic default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 3

B.

ipv6 route ::/128 2001 :db8:1234:2::1 3

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 1

D.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 2

Refer to Itie exhibit

A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch. These requirements must be met:

* MAC addresses must be learned dynamically

* Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen

Which two commands must be configured to complete this task"? (Choose two)

A.

SW(ccnfig-if)=switchport port-security mac-address sticky

B.

SW(confKj-if)=switchport port-security violation restrict

C.

SW(config.if)sswitchport port-security mac-address 0010.7B84.45E6

D.

SW(config-if)aswitchport port-security maximum 2

E.

SW(ccnfig-if)=switchport port-security violation shutdown

Refer to the exhibit An IPv6 address must be obtained automatically on the LAN interface on R1 Which command must be implemented to accomplish the task?

A.

Ipv6 address 2001:dbB:d8d2:1008:4343:61:0010::/64

B.

Ipv6 address autoconfig

C.

Ipv6 address fe80::/10

D.

Ipv6 address dhcp

Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?

A.

CHANGE

B.

UPDATE

C.

POST

D.

PUT

Drag and drop the AAA lerms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?

A.

S 192.168.0.0/20 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

B.

S 192.168.2.0/29 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

C.

S 192.168.2.0/28 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

D.

S 192.168.1.0/30 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

Refer to the exhibit.

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?

A.

a single destination address

B.

the source 10.0.1.100

C.

all hosts in the 10.0.1.0 subnet

D.

the 10.0.0.0 network

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 R2 and R3 use a protocol to identify their neighbors' IP addresses hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?

A.

Configure the no cdp enable command on gO/2.

B.

Configure the no cdp run command globally.

C.

Configure the no lldp run command globally.

D.

Configure the no lldp receive command on gQV1.

Which device separates networks by security domains?

A.

firewall

B.

access point

C.

intrusion protection system

D.

wireless controller

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol on a specific subnet?

A.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

B.

filters traffic based on destination IP addressing

C.

sends the default route to the hosts on a network

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The engineer must limit the connectivity from PCI lo ma SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC addresses allowed must be Limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference room connectivity?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)

A.

::ffif 1014 1011/96

B.

2001 7011046:1111:1/64

C.

;jff06bb43cd4dd111bbff02 4545234d

D.

2002 5121204b 1111:1/64

E.

FF02::0WlFF00:0l)00/104

Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at the default configuration level. A trunk link must be implemented between two switches with these requirements:

• using an industry-standard trunking protocol

• permitting VLANs 1 -10 and denying other VLANs

How must the interconnecting ports be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

A HCP pool has been created with the name CONTROL. The pool uses the next to last usable IP address as the default gateway for the DHCP clients. The server is located at 172.16 32.15. What is the step in the process for clients on the 192.168.52.0/24 subnet to reach the DHCP server?

A.

ip forward-protocol udp 137

B.

ip default-network 192.168.52.253

C.

ip helper-address 172.16.32.15

D.

ip default-gateway 192.168.52.253

When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?

A.

for small networks with minimal need for growth

B.

the access and distribution layers must be on the same device

C.

for large networks that are connected to multiple remote sites

D.

only when using VSS technology

Refer to the exhibit.

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:

• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2

• R1 will never participate in DR elections

• R1 will use a router-id of 101.1.1.

Which configuration must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

What is the role of the root port in a switched network?

A.

It replaces the designated port when the designated port fails

B.

It is the best path to the root from a nonroot switch.

C.

It replaces the designated port when the root port fails.

D.

It is administratively disabled until a failover occurs.

Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?

A.

snmp-server host

B.

snmp-server community

C.

snmp-server enable traps

D.

snmp-server user

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the next step to complete the implementation for the partial NAT configuration shown?

A.

Reconfigure the static NAT entries that overlap the NAT pool

B.

Configure the NAT outside interface

C.

Modify the access list for the internal network on e0/1

D.

Apply the ACL to the pool configuration

Which is a fact related to FTP?

A.

It uses block numbers to identify and mitigate data-transfer errors

B.

It always operates without user authentication

C.

It relies on the well-known UDP port 69.

D.

It uses two separate connections for control and data traffic

Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?

A.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode on

B.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode desirable

C.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode passive

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?

A.

R1(conftg)#lp route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

B.

R1(Config)#lp route 10.10.10.10 265.255.255.255 192 168.0.2

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10

D.

R1(config)3|p route 0.0.0.0 0.0 0.0 192 168.0.2

What are two purposes of HSRP? (Choose two.)

A.

It groups two or more routers to operate as one virtual router.

B.

It improves network availability by providing redundant gateways.

C.

It passes configuration information to hosts in a TCP/IP network.

D.

It helps hosts on the network to reach remote subnets without a default gateway.

E.

It provides a mechanism for diskless clients to autoconfigure their IP parameters during boot.

What are two examples of multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)

A.

single sign-on

B.

unique user knowledge

C.

passwords that expire

D.

soft tokens

E.

shared password responsibility

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration must an engineer implement so that R1 is elected as the DR?

A.

R1(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/0R1(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1R1#clear ip ospf process

B.

R2(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/2R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1R2#clear ip ospf process

C.

R1(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/0R1(config-if)#ip ospf priority 200R1#clear ip ospf process

D.

R3(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 200R3#clear ip ospf process

Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?

A.

Alert

B.

Error

C.

Emergency

D.

Critical

What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?

A.

DHCPREQUEST

B.

DHCPDISCOVER

C.

DHCPACK

D.

DHCPOFFER

Which alternative to password authentication Is Implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?

A.

magic links

B.

one-time passwords

C.

digital certificates

D.

90-day renewal policies

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken so that neighbofing devices rapidly discover switch Cat9300?

A.

Configure the cdp timer 10 command on switch Cat9300.

B.

Enable portfast on the ports that connect to neighboring devices.

C.

Configure the cdp holdtime 10 command on switch Cat9300.

D.

Configure the cdp timer 10 command on the neighbors of switch Cat9300.

Refer to the exhibit.

When router R1 is sending traffic to IP address 10.56.192 1, which interface or next hop address does it use to route the packet?

A.

0.0.0.0.0/0

B.

10.56.0.1

C.

10.56.128.19

D.

Vlan57

Refer to the exhibit. The My_WLAN wireless LAN was configured with WPA2 Layer 2 PSK security. Which additional configuration must the administrator perform to allow users to connect to this WKAN on a different subnet called Data?

A.

Enable Broadcast SSID and select data from the Interface/Interface Group drop-down list.

B.

Enable Status and select data from the Interface/Interface Group drop-down list.

C.

Enable Status and set the NAS-ID to data.

D.

Enable Status and enable Broadcast SSID.

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Total 1197 questions
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