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300-410 Cisco Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your Cisco 300-410 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (300-410 ENARSI) certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2026, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 630 questions

When provisioning a device in Cisco DNA Center, the engineer sees the error message “Cannot select the device. Not compatible with template”.

What is the reason for the error?

A.

The template has an incorrect configuration.

B.

The software version of the template is different from the software version of the device.

C.

The changes to the template were not committed.

D.

The tag that was used to filter the templates does not match the device tag.

Which statement about IPv6 RA Guard is true?

A.

It does not offer protection in environments where IPv6 traffic is tunneled.

B.

It cannot be configured on a switch port interface in the ingress direction.

C.

Packets that are dropped by IPv6 RA Guard cannot be spanned.

D.

It is not supported in hardware when TCAM is programmed.

Which command allows traffic to load-balance in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN configuration?

A.

multi-paths eibgp 2

B.

maximum-paths 2

C.

Maximum-paths ibgp 2

D.

multi-paths 2

What is the role of a route distinguisher via a VRF-Lite setup implementation?

A.

It extends the IP address to identify which VFP instance it belongs to.

B.

It manages the import and export of routes between two or more VRF instances

C.

It enables multicast distribution for VRF-Lite setups to enhance EGP routing protocol capabilities

D.

It enables multicast distribution for VRF-Lite setups to enhance IGP routing protocol capabilities

Refer to the exhibit.

Why is the remote NetFlow server failing to receive the NetFlow data?

A.

The flow exporter is configured but is not used.

B.

The flow monitor is applied in the wrong direction.

C.

The flow monitor is applied to the wrong interface.

D.

The destination of the flow exporter is not reachable.

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration configures a policy on R1 to forward any traffic that is sourced from

the 192.168.130.0/24 network to R2?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures a static route on a router, but when the engineer checks the route

to the destination, a different next hop is chosen. What is the reason for this?

A.

Dynamic routing protocols always have priority over static routes.

B.

The metric of the OSPF route is lower than the metric of the static route.

C.

The configured AD for the static route is higher than the AD of OSPF.

D.

The syntax of the static route is not valid, so the route is not considered.

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is trying to configure local authentication on the console line, but the device is trying to authenticate using TACACS+. Which action produces the desired configuration?

A.

Add the aaa authentication login default none command to the global configuration.

B.

Replace the capital “C” with a lowercase “c” in the aaa authentication login Console local command.

C.

Add the aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local-case command to the globalconfiguration.

D.

Add the login authentication Console command to the line configuration

Exhibit:

An engineer configured R2 and R5 as route reflectors and noticed that not all routes are sent to R1 to advertise to the eBGP peers. Which iBGP routers must be configured as route reflectors to advertise all routes to restore reachability across all networks?

A.

R1 and R4

B.

R1 and R5

C.

R4 and R5

D.

R2 and R5

Refer to the exhibit.

PC-2 failed to establish a Telnet connection to the terminal server. Which configuration resolves the issue?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Refer to the exhibit.

A network is under a cyberattack. A network engineer connected to R1 by SSH and enabled the terminal monitor via SSH session to find the source and destination of the attack. The session was flooded with messages, which made it impossible for the engineer to troubleshoot the issue. Which command resolves this issue on R1?

A.

no terminal monitor

B.

(config)#terminal no monitor

C.

#terminal no monitor

D.

(config)#no terminal monitor

Refer to the exhibit.

A user has set up an IP SLA probe to test if a non-SLA host web server on IP address 10.1.1.1 accepts HTTP sessions prior to deployment. The probe is failing. Which action should the network administrator recommend for the probe to succeed?

A.

Re-issue the ip sla schedule command.

B.

Add icmp-echo command for the host.

C.

Add the control disable option to the tcp connect.

D.

Modify the ip sla schedule frequency to forever.

Refer to the exhibits.

A user on the 192.168.1.0/24 network can successfully ping 192.168.3.1, but the administrator cannot ping 192.168.3.1 from the LA router. Which set of configurations fixes the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Which statement about MPLS LDP router ID is true?

A.

If not configured, the operational physical interface is chosen as the router ID even if a loopback is configured.

B.

The loopback with the highest IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The MPLS LDP router ID must match the IGP router ID.

D.

The force keyword changes the router ID to the specified address without causing any impact.

Refer to the exhibit. The engineer configured and connected Router2 to Router1. The link came up but could not establish a Telnet connection to Router1 IPv6 address of 2001:DB8::1. Which configuration allows Router2 to establish a Telnet connection to Router1?

A.

jpv6 unicast-routing

B.

permit ICMPv6 on access list INGRESS for Router2 to obtain IPv6 address

C.

permit ip any any on access list EGRESS2 on Router1

D.

IPv6 address on GigabitEthernet0/0

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured BGP between routers R1 and R3 The BOP peers cannot establish neighbor adjacency to be able to exchange routes. Which configuration resolves this issue?

A.

R3router bgp 6502address-family ipv6neighbor AB01:2011:7:100::1 activate

B.

R1router bgp 6501address-family ipv6neighbor AB01:2011:7:100;:3 activate

C.

R3router bgp 6502neighbor AB01:2011:7:100::1 ebgp-muttlhop 255

D.

R1router bgp 6501 neighborAB01:2011:7:100::3ebgp-multihop255

An engineer configured SNMP notifications sent to the management server using authentication and encrypting data with DES. An error in the response PDU is received as "UNKNOWNUSERNAME. WRONGDIGEST". Which action resolves the issue?

A.

Configure the correct authentication password using SNMPv3 authPriv .

B.

Configure the correct authentication password using SNMPv3 authNoPriv.

C.

Configure correct authentication and privacy passwords using SNMPv3 authNoPriv.

D.

Configure correct authentication and privacy passwords using SNMPv3 authPriv.

An engineer configured two routers connected to two different service providers using BGP with default attributes. One of the links is presenting high delay, which causes slowness in the network. Which BGP attribute must the engineer configure to avoid using the high-delay ISP link if the second ISP link is up?

A.

LOCAL_PREF

B.

MED

C.

WEIGHT

D.

AS-PATH

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configured mutual redistribution on R1 and R2 routers, which caused instability in the network. Which action resolves the issue?

A.

Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1. and match the same tag on R2 to allow when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.

B.

Apply a prefix list of EIGRP network routes in OSPF domain on R1 to propagate back into the EIGRP routing domain.

C.

Set a tag in the route map when redistributing EIGRP into OSPF on R1, and match the same tag on R2 to deny when redistributing OSPF into EIGRP.

D.

Advertise summary routes of EIGRP to OSPF and deny specific EIGRP routes when redistributing into OSPF.

Refer to the exhibit.

When monitoring an IPv6 access list, an engineer notices that the ACL does not have any hits and is causing unnecessary traffic to pass through the interface Which command must be configured to resolve the issue?

A.

access-class INTERNET in

B.

ipv6 traffic-filter INTERNET in

C.

ipv6 access-class INTERNET in

D.

ip access-group INTERNET in

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configured an IPv6 access list to allow TCP return frame only, but it is not working as expected. Which changes resolve this issue?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

An engineer must configure a Cisco router to initiate secure connections from the router to other devices in the network but kept failing. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

A.

Configure a source port for the SSH connection to initiate

B.

Configure a TACACS+ server and enable it

C.

Configure transport input ssh command on the console

D.

Configure a domain name

E.

Configure a crypto key to be generated

Drag and drop the actions from the left into the correct order on the right to configure a policy to avoid following packet forwarding based on the normal routing path.

Refer to Exhibit.

A network administrator has successfully configured DMVPN topology between a hub and two spoke routers. Which two configuration commands should establish direct communications between spoke 1 and spoke 2 without going through the hub? (Choose two).

A.

At the hub router, configure the ip nhrp shortcut command.

B.

At the spoke routers, configure the ip nhrp spoke-tunnel command.

C.

At the hub router, configure ip nhrp redirect the command

D.

At the spoke routers, configure the ip nhrp shortcut command.

E.

At the hub router, configure tne Ip nhrp spoke-tunnel command

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured NTP on a Cisco router to get synchronized time for system and logs from a unified time source The configuration did not work as desired Which service must be enabled to resolve the issue?

A.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime localtime global command.

B.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime synchronize global command.

C.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime console global command.

D.

Enter the service timestamps log datetime clock-period global command

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is discovering a Cisco Catalyst 9300 and a Cisco WLC 3504 in Cisco DNA Center. The Catalyst 9300 is added successfully However the WLC is showing [ error "uncontactable" when the administrator tries to add it in Cisco DNA Center. Which action discovers WLC in Cisco DNA Center successfully?

A.

Copy the .cert file from the Cisco DNA Center on the USB and upload it to the WLC 3504.

B.

Delete the WLC 3504 from Cisco DNA Center and add it to Cisco DNA Center again.

C.

Add the WLC 3504 under the hierarchy of the Catalyst 9300 connected devices.

D.

Copy the .pern file from the Cisco DNA Center on the USB and upload it to the WLC 3504.

Refer to Exhibit.

A network administrator enables DHCP snooping on the Cisco Catalyst 3750-X switch and configures the uplink port (Port-channel2) as a trusted port. Clients are not receiving an IP address, but when DHCP snooping is disabled, clients start receiving IP addresses. Which global command resolves the issue?

A.

No ip dhcp snooping information option

B.

ip dhcp snooping

C.

ip dhcp relay information trust portchannel2

D.

ip dhcp snooping trust

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configured the branch router for IPv6 on the E 0/0 interface The neighboring router is fully configured to meet requirements, but the neighbor relationship is not coming up. Which action fixes the problem on the branch router to bring the IPv6 neighbors up?

A.

Enable the IPv4 address family under the E 0/0 interface by using the address-family Ipv4 unicast command

B.

Disable IPv6 on the E 0/0 interface using the no ipv6 enable command

C.

Enable the IPv4 address family under the router ospfv3 4 process by using the address-family ipv4 unicast command

D.

Disable OSPF for IPv4 using the no ospfv3 4 area 0 ipv4 command under the E 0/0 interface.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has successfully set up a floating static route from the BRANCH router to the HQ network using HQ_R1 as the primary default gateway When the g0/0 goes down on HQ_R1, the branch network cannot reach the HQ network 192.168.20.0/24. Which set of configurations resolves the issue?

A.

HQ_R3(config)# ip sla responderHQ_R3(config)# ip sla responder icmp-echo 172.16.35.1

B.

BRANCH(config)# ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sla)# icmp-echo 192.168.100.2

C.

HQ R3(config)# Ip sla responderHQ R3(config)# Ip sla responder Icmp-echo 172.16.35.5

D.

BRANCH(config)# Ip sla 1BRANCH(config-ip-sta)# Icmp-echo 192.168.100.1

Which feature drops packets if the source address is not found in the snooping table?

A.

IPv6 Source Guard

B.

IPv6 Destination Guard

C.

IPv6 Prefix Guard

D.

Binding Table Recovery

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Total 630 questions
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