220-1102 CompTIA A+ Certification Core 2 Exam Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Classification: a) Phishing

This email is a phishing attempt, as it tries to trick the user into clicking on a malicious link that could compromise their account or personal information. Some suspicious items in this email are:

The email has a generic greeting and does not address the user by name.

The email has spelling errors, such as “unusal” and “Locaked”.

The email uses a sense of urgency and fear to pressure the user into clicking on the link.

The email does not match the official format or domain of the IT Help Desk at CompTIA.

The email has two black bat icons, which are not related to CompTIA or IT support.

The appropriate resolution for this email is A. Report email to Information Security. The user should not click on the link, reply to the email, or provide any personal or account information. The user should forward the email to the Information Security team or use a professional email form to report the phishing attempt. The user should also delete the email from their inbox and trash folder.

The suspicious items to select are:

b) From address

d) Hyperlinks

These items indicate that the email is not from a legitimate source and that the link is potentially malicious. The other items are not suspicious in this case, as the to address is the user’s own email and there are no attachments.

Classification: b) Spam

This email is a spam email, as it is an unsolicited and unwanted message that tries to persuade the user to participate in a survey and claim a reward. Some suspicious items in this email are:

The email offers a free wireless headphone as an incentive, which is too good to be true.

The email does not provide any details about the survey company, such as its name, address, or contact information.

The email contains an external survey link, which may lead to a malicious or fraudulent website.

The email does not have an unsubscribe option, which is required by law for commercial emails.

The appropriate resolution for this email is C. Unsubscribe. The user should look for an unsubscribe link or button at the bottom of the email and follow the instructions to opt out of receiving future emails from the sender. The user should also mark the email as spam or junk in their email client, which will help filter out similar emails in the future. The user should not click on the survey link, reply to the email, or provide any personal or financial information.

Classification: c) Legitimate

This email is a legitimate email, as it is from a trusted source and has a valid purpose. There are no suspicious items in this email, as the from address, the to address, the attachment, and the email body are all consistent and relevant. The appropriate resolution for this email is B. Perform no additional actions. The user can open the attachment and review the orientation material as instructed. The user does not need to report, unsubscribe, or delete this email.

Classification: a) Phishing

This email is a phishing attempt, as it tries to deceive the user into downloading and running a malicious attachment that could compromise their system or data. Some suspicious items in this email are:

The email has a generic greeting and does not address the user by name or username.

The email has an urgent tone and claims that a security patch needs to be installed immediately.

The email has an attachment named “patch1.exe”, which is an executable file that could contain malware or ransomware.

The email does not match the official format or domain of CompTIA Information Security.

The appropriate resolution for this email is A. Report email to Information Security. The user should not open the attachment, reply to the email, or provide any personal or account information. The user should forward the email to the Information Security team or use a professional email form to report the phishing attempt. The user should also delete the email from their inbox and trash folder.

Classification: c) Legitimate

This email is a legitimate email, as it is from a trusted source and has a valid purpose. There are no suspicious items in this email, as the from address, the to address, and the email body are all consistent and relevant. The appropriate resolution for this email is B. Perform no additional actions. The user can reply to the email and thank the sender for the interview opportunity. The user does not need to report, unsubscribe, or delete this email.

Access control vestibule is the correct answer for this question. An access control vestibule is a physical security device that consists of two doors that form an enclosed space between them. The first door opens only after verifying the identity of the person entering, such as by using a card reader, biometric scanner, or keypad. The second door opens only after the first door closes, creating a buffer zone that prevents unauthorized access or tailgating. An access control vestibule also maintains a record of events, such as who entered or exited, when, and how. Hard token, key fob, and door lock are not sufficient to meet the requirements of this question. A hard token is a device that generates a one-time password or code for authentication purposes. A key fob is a small device that can be attached to a key ring and used to unlock doors or start vehicles remotely. A door lock is a mechanism that secures a door from opening without a key or a code. References:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 25

A corporate EULA is a type of end-user license agreement that is designed for a large organization that needs to use proprietary software with vendor support for a multiuser environment. A corporate EULA typically grants the organization a volume license that allows it to install and use the software on multiple devices or servers, and to distribute the software to its employees or affiliates. A corporate EULA also usually provides the organization with technical support, maintenance, updates, and warranty from the software vendor, as well as some customization options and discounts. A corporate EULA may also include terms and conditions that specify the rights and obligations of both parties, such as confidentiality, liability, indemnification, termination, and dispute resolution12.

A corporate EULA is a better option than the other choices because:

A perpetual EULA (B) is a type of end-user license agreement that grants the user a permanent and irrevocable license to use the software, without any time limit or expiration date. However, a perpetual EULA does not necessarily include vendor support, updates, or warranty, and it may not allow the user to install the software on multiple devices or servers, or to distribute the software to other users. A perpetual EULA may also be more expensive than a corporate EULA, as it requires a one-time payment upfront, rather than a recurring subscription fee34.

An open-source EULA © is a type of end-user license agreement that grants the user a license to use, modify, and redistribute the software, which is publicly available and free of charge. However, an open-source EULA does not provide any vendor support, maintenance, updates, or warranty, and it may impose some restrictions or obligations on the user, such as disclosing the source code, attributing the original author, or using a compatible license for derivative works. An open-source EULA may not be suitable for a large organization that needs proprietary software with vendor support for a multiuser environment56.

A personal EULA (D) is a type of end-user license agreement that grants the user a license to use the software for personal, non-commercial purposes only. A personal EULA may limit the number of devices or servers that the user can install the software on, and prohibit the user from distributing, copying, or reselling the software to other users. A personal EULA may also provide limited or no vendor support, maintenance, updates, or warranty, and it may have a fixed or renewable term. A personal EULA may not meet the needs of a large organization that needs proprietary software with vendor support for a multiuser environment7 .

Pathping is the best command-line tool to provide the most detailed information for investigating the network performance issue further. Pathping is a utility that combines the functions of ping and tracert, which are two other command-line tools that test network connectivity and latency. Pathping sends packets to each router on the path to a destination and then computes results based on the packets returned from each hop. Pathping can show the route taken by the packets, the number of hops, the latency of each hop, and the packet loss percentage. This information can help the systems administrator identify where the network problem occurs and how severe it is. Ipconfig, arp, and nslookup are not as useful as pathping for this task. Ipconfig shows the configuration of the network interface card, such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. Arp shows the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses in the local network. Nslookup queries DNS servers for domain name resolution. References:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 21

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Cert Guide, page 457

The most likely cause of the user’s laptop issues is that it has been infected by some type of malware or ransomware. Malware and ransomware are malicious software that can harm, exploit, or disrupt devices or networks12. They can cause symptoms such as slow performance, browser redirects, pop-up windows, data encryption, or ransom demands12. Therefore, the first step a technician should take to resolve the issue is to scan the laptop for malware and ransomware using a reliable and updated anti-malware tool34. This can help identify and remove any malicious software that may be present on the laptop. Scanning for malware and ransomware is more effective and urgent than the other options because:

Performing a system restore may not remove the malware or ransomware, as some of them can persist or hide in the system files or backup copies34. Moreover, a system restore may result in data loss or corruption, as it restores the system to a previous state and deletes any changes made after that point5.

Checking the network utilization may not help diagnose or fix the problem, as the malware or ransomware may not be using the network at all, or may be using it in a stealthy or encrypted manner34. Furthermore, checking the network utilization does not address the root cause of the issue, which is the presence of malicious software on the laptop.

Updating the antivirus software may not be sufficient to detect or remove the malware or ransomware, as some of them may evade or disable the antivirus software, or may be too new or unknown for the antivirus software to recognize34. Additionally, updating the antivirus software does not guarantee that the laptop will be scanned for malware or ransomware, as the user may need to initiate or schedule the scan manually.

Ease of Access is a utility in the Control Panel that allows users to adjust various accessibility settings on Windows, such as the on-screen keyboard, magnifier, narrator, high contrast, etc. The on-screen keyboard can be turned on by going to Ease of Access > Keyboard and toggling the switch to On12. Alternatively, the on-screen keyboard can be opened by pressing Windows + Ctrl + O keys or by typing osk.exe in the Run dialog box3.

The best solution for a technician to implement is to disable the browser from sending notifications to the Action Center. This will prevent the random advertisement notifications from appearing in the Windows 10 Action Center, which can be annoying and distracting for the user. The technician can follow these steps to disable the browser notifications1:

Open the browser that is sending the notifications, such as Microsoft Edge, Google Chrome, or Mozilla Firefox.

Go to the browser settings or options menu, and look for the privacy and security section.

Find the option to manage site permissions or notifications, and click on it.

You will see a list of sites that are allowed or blocked from sending notifications to the browser and the Action Center. You can either block all sites from sending notifications, or select specific sites that you want to block or allow.

Save the changes and close the browser settings.

This solution is better than the other options because:

Running a full antivirus scan on the computer (B) is not necessary, as the advertisement notifications are not malicious or harmful, and they are not caused by a virus or malware infection. Running a scan will not stop the notifications from appearing, and it will consume system resources and time.

Disabling all Action Center notifications © is not advisable, as the Action Center is a useful feature that shows notifications and alerts from various apps and system events, such as email, calendar, security, updates, etc. Disabling all notifications will make the user miss important information and reminders, and reduce the functionality of the Action Center.

Moving specific site notifications from Allowed to Block (D) is not the best solution, as it will only stop the notifications from some sites, but not from others. The user may still receive advertisement notifications from other sites that are not blocked, or from new sites that are added to the Allowed list. This solution will also require the user to manually manage the list of sites, which can be tedious and time-consuming.

In order to connect to a user’s laptop via RDP, the technician should open port 3389 on the Windows firewall. This is because RDP uses port 3389 for communication12. The other options are not necessary or relevant for establishing an RDP connection.

Confirming the user can ping the default gateway is not required for RDP, as it only tests the network connectivity between the user’s laptop and the router. RDP works over the internet, so the technician should be able to ping the user’s laptop directly using its IP address3.

Changing the IP address on the user’s laptop is not needed for RDP, as long as the IP address is valid and not conflicting with another device on the network. The user’s laptop has a valid IP address of 192.168.0.45, which belongs to the same subnet as the gateway (192.168.0.1) and the subnet mask (255.255.255.0)4.

Changing the subnet mask on the user’s laptop is not required for RDP, as long as the subnet mask matches the network configuration. The user’s laptop has a correct subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which defines a network with 254 possible hosts4.

A knowledge base is a centralized repository of information that can be used by technicians to find solutions to common problems, best practices, troubleshooting guides, and other useful resources12. Updating the knowledge base with the details of the issue and the resolution can help other technicians who encounter similar issues in the future. It can also reduce the number of tickets and improve customer satisfaction3.

References1: The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Student Guide (Exam 220-1102), page 10-11 2: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives, page 13 3: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Certification Study Guide, page 10-12

Least privilege is the principle that is used to ensure users have the appropriate level of access to perform their job functions. Least privilege means granting users only the minimum amount of access rights and permissions they need to perform their tasks, and nothing more. Least privilege reduces the risk of unauthorized access, data leakage, malware infection, or accidental damage by limiting what users can do on the system or network. Access control list, multifactor authentication, and mobile device management are not principles, but rather mechanisms or methods that can implement least privilege. Access control list is a list that specifies the users or groups that are allowed or denied access to a resource, such as a file, folder, or printer. Multifactor authentication is a method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to prove their identity, such as a password, a token, or a biometric factor. Mobile device management is a tool that allows managing and securing mobile devices, such as smartphones or tablets, that are used by employees to access corporate data or applications. References:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 25

[CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide], page 1003

Reinstalling the application is the best option to fix the intermittent crashing of the application on the corporate smartphone. Reinstalling the application will ensure that the latest version of the app is installed, which may have bug fixes and compatibility updates that can resolve the crashing issue. Reinstalling the app will also clear any corrupted or outdated data or cache that may cause the app to malfunction.

The other options are not as effective or appropriate as reinstalling the app. Restarting the phone may temporarily fix the issue, but it will not address the root cause of the app crashing, which may be related to the app itself or its data. Reimaging the OS is a drastic and unnecessary measure that will erase all the data and settings on the phone and restore it to its factory state. This will also remove all the other apps and files that may be important for the corporate use of the phone. Clearing the cache may help to free up some space and improve the performance of the app, but it will not update the app or fix any bugs that may cause the app to crash.

Event Viewer is a Microsoft tool that records and displays system events, errors, warnings, and information. Event Viewer can help troubleshoot and diagnose problems, such as unexpected shutdowns, by showing the details of what happened before, during, and after the incident. Event Viewer can also show the source of the event, such as an application, a service, a driver, or a hardware device. By using Event Viewer, a technician can identify the root cause of the unexpected shutdown, such as a power failure, a thermal event, a driver conflict, or a malware infection. 

Rebooting the smartphone is the first and simplest step to resolve the issue of frequent crashes and unresponsiveness. Rebooting clears the memory, closes the background apps, and refreshes the system. It can also fix minor glitches and bugs that may cause the calendar app or the smartphone to malfunction12. The other options are either too drastic or unnecessary. Reinstalling the application may not solve the problem if the issue is with the smartphone itself. Updating the smartphone’s OS may not be possible or helpful if the device is unresponsive or incompatible. Resetting the smartphone to factory settings will erase all the data and settings on the device, which should be the last resort.

The best course of action for the technician is to restore the defaults and reimage the corporate OS on the device. This will remove the jailbreak and any unauthorized or malicious apps that may have been installed on the device, as well as restore the security features and policies that the company has set for its devices. This will also ensure that the device can receive the latest updates and patches from the manufacturer and the company, and prevent any data leakage or compromise from the device.

Jailbreaking is a process of bypassing the built-in security features of a device to install software other than what the manufacturer has made available for that device1. Jailbreaking allows the device owner to gain full access to the root of the operating system and access all the features1. However, jailbreaking also exposes the device to various risks, such as:

The loss of warranty from the device manufacturers2.

Inability to update software until a jailbroken version becomes available2.

Increased security vulnerabilities32.

Decreased battery life2.

Increased volatility of the device2.

Some of the signs of a jailbroken device are:

A high number of ads, which may indicate the presence of adware or spyware on the device3.

Receiving data-usage limit notifications, which may indicate the device is sending or receiving data in the background without the user’s knowledge or consent3.

Experiencing slow response, which may indicate the device is running unauthorized or malicious apps that consume resources or interfere with the normal functioning of the device3.

Finding apps or icons that the user did not install or recognize, such as Cydia, which is a storefront for jailbroken iOS devices1.

The other options are not sufficient or appropriate for dealing with a jailbroken device. Running an antivirus and enabling encryption may not detect or remove all the threats or vulnerabilities that the jailbreak has introduced, and may not restore the device to its original state or functionality. Backing up the files and doing a system restore may not erase the jailbreak or the unauthorized apps, and may also backup the infected or compromised files. Undoing the jailbreak and enabling an antivirus may not be possible or effective, as the jailbreak may prevent the device from updating or installing security software, and may also leave traces of the jailbreak or the unauthorized apps on the device.

The SSID (Service Set Identifier) is the name of a wireless network that is broadcasted by the router or the Wi-Fi base station. The SSID helps nearby devices to identify and connect to the available networks. However, broadcasting the SSID also exposes the network to potential connection attempts from unauthorized or malicious users. Therefore, disabling the SSID can mitigate connection attempts by making the network invisible or hidden to the devices that are not already connected to it. To connect to a hidden network, the user would need to know the exact SSID and enter it manually.

The other options are not related to mitigating connection attempts to the corporate Wi-Fi. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a protocol that assigns IP addresses to the devices on a network. Firewall is a software or hardware device that filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. SSD (Solid State Drive) is a type of storage device that uses flash memory to store data. Disabling any of these options would not prevent connection attempts to the Wi-Fi network, and may cause other problems or issues for the network functionality and performance.

The best option for the technician to demonstrate proper communication techniques and professionalism is to contact the customer if the technician is arriving late. This shows respect for the customer’s time and expectations, and allows the customer to adjust their schedule accordingly. It also helps to maintain a positive relationship and trust between the technician and the customer. The technician should apologize for the delay and provide a realistic estimate of their arrival time. The technician should also thank the customer for their patience and understanding.

The other options are not appropriate or professional. Do not notify the customer if arriving before the customer is not a good practice, as it may cause confusion or frustration for the customer. The customer may have made other plans or arrangements based on the technician’s original schedule, and may not be available or prepared for the service. Dismiss the customer and proceed with the after-hours work is rude and disrespectful, as it ignores the customer’s needs and preferences. The customer may have questions or concerns about the service, or may want to supervise or verify the work. The technician should always communicate with the customer before, during, and after the service. Disclose the experience via social media is unethical and unprofessional, as it may violate the customer’s privacy and the company’s policies. The technician should not share any confidential or sensitive information about the customer or the service on social media, or make any negative or inappropriate comments about the customer or the situation.

A software firewall is a program that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a computer or a server. A software firewall can help prevent unauthorized LAN devices from accessing stored files on a company file server by applying rules and policies that filter the network packets based on their source, destination, protocol, port, or content. A software firewall can also block or allow specific applications or services from communicating with the network, and alert the administrator of any suspicious or malicious activity12.

A software firewall is a better option than the other choices because:

Password complexity (B) is a good practice to protect the file server from unauthorized access, but it is not sufficient by itself. Password complexity refers to the use of strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack by attackers, and that are changed frequently and securely. Password complexity can prevent brute force attacks or credential theft, but it cannot stop network attacks that exploit vulnerabilities in the file server software or hardware, or that bypass the authentication process34.

Antivirus application © and anti-malware scans (D) are important tools to protect the file server from viruses and malware that can infect, damage, or encrypt the stored files. However, they are not effective in preventing unauthorized LAN devices from accessing the files in the first place. Antivirus and anti-malware tools can only detect and remove known threats, and they may not be able to stop zero-day attacks or advanced persistent threats that can evade or disable them. Moreover, antivirus and anti-malware tools cannot control the network traffic or the file server permissions, and they may not be compatible with all file server platforms or configurations56.

Malware is software that infects computer systems to damage, disable or exploit the computer or network for various malicious purposes5. Malware is typically distributed via email attachments, fake internet ads, infected applications or websites, and often relies on user interaction to execute6. Therefore, one of the most effective ways to prevent malware infections is to educate the end user about the common signs and sources of malware, and how to avoid them7. Configuring the firewall, restoring the system from backups, and updating the antivirus program are also important security measures, but they do not address the root cause of the user’s repeated infections, which is likely due to a lack of awareness or caution.

References5: Malware: what it is, how it works, and how to stop it - Norton6: How to Prevent Malware: 15 Best Practices for Malware Prevention7: 10 Security Tips for How to Prevent Malware Infections - Netwrix

The first step in troubleshooting a hardware issue is to identify the hardware device that is causing the problem. Asking the user for the model number of the hardware can help the help desk technician to find the specifications, manuals, drivers, and other relevant information for the device. This can also help the technician to determine if the device is compatible with the user’s system, if it has any known issues or defects, and if it is covered by warranty or support contract. Asking the user for the model number of the hardware is a help desk best practice that can save time and effort in resolving the issue

 Group Policy is a feature of Windows that allows administrators to centrally manage and configure the settings of computers and users in a domain network. Group Policy can be used to modify the default home page of all the workstations in a company by creating and applying a policy that specifies the desired URL for the home page. This way, the change will be automatically applied to all the workstations that are joined to the domain and receive the policy.

Recovery mode is a special boot option that allows the user to access advanced tools and features to troubleshoot and remove malware from the device. Recovery mode can also restore the system to a previous state or reset the device to factory settings. Running System Restore, scheduling a scan, or restarting the PC may not be effective in removing the malware, as it may still be active or hidden in the system files.

VNC (Virtual Network Computing) is a remote access tool that allows the technician to access and control various Windows, Linux, and macOS desktops on the company LAN using a graphical user interface. VNC does not require an external internet connection, as it works over a local network or a VPN. VNC uses a client-server model, where the server runs on the remote desktop and the client connects to it from another device. VNC can transmit the keyboard and mouse events from the client to the server, and the screen updates from the server to the client, enabling the technician to interact with the remote desktop as if it were local12.

VNC is a better option than the other choices because:

RMM (Remote Monitoring and Management) (B) is not a single software solution, but a category of software solutions that enable IT professionals to remotely monitor, manage, and troubleshoot multiple devices and networks. RMM software may include remote access tools, but also other features such as patch management, backup and recovery, security, reporting, and automation. RMM software may require an external internet connection, as it often relies on cloud-based services or web-based consoles34.

RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) © is a remote access tool that allows the technician to access and control Windows desktops on the company LAN using a graphical user interface. However, RDP is not compatible with Linux or macOS desktops, unless they have third-party software installed that can emulate or translate the RDP protocol. RDP also has some security and performance issues, such as encryption vulnerabilities, bandwidth consumption, and latency problems56.

SSH (Secure Shell) (D) is a remote access tool that allows the technician to access and control various Windows, Linux, and macOS desktops on the company LAN using a command-line interface. SSH does not require an external internet connection, as it works over a local network or a VPN. SSH uses encryption and authentication to secure the communication between the client and the server. However, SSH does not provide a graphical user interface, which may limit the functionality and usability of the remote desktop7 .

Turning off the machine is the first and most urgent step to prevent further damage to the host and other systems. Ransomware can encrypt files, steal data, and spread to other devices on the network if the infected machine remains online. Turning off the machine will stop the ransomware process and isolate the machine from the network12. The other options are either ineffective or risky. Running a full antivirus scan may not detect or remove the ransomware, especially if it is a new or unknown variant. Removing the LAN card may disconnect the machine from the network, but it will not stop the ransomware from encrypting or deleting files on the local drive. Installing a different endpoint solution may not be possible or helpful if the ransomware has already compromised the system or blocked the installation.

Removing the power cord is the first step to ensure the safety of the technician and the PC components. This will prevent any electrical shock or damage that may occur if the PC is still connected to a power source. The technician should also press the power button to drain any residual power from the capacitors.

The Processes tab in the Task Manager shows all the running processes on the computer, including applications and background services. The user can use this tab to identify the unresponsive application and end its process by right-clicking on it and selecting End task. This will free up the system resources and close the application. The other tabs in the Task Manager do not allow the user to address the situation. The Startup tab shows the programs that run when the computer starts, the Performance tab shows the system resource usage and statistics, and the Application history tab shows the resource usage of the applications over time

The chmod command is used to change the permissions of files and directories in Linux. It can grant or revoke read, write, and execute permissions for the owner, the group, and others. To change the file permissions to only allow access to a certain group of users, the chmod command can use either the symbolic or the numeric mode. For example, to give read and write permissions to the group and no permissions to others, the command can be:

chmod g+rw,o-rwx filename

or

chmod 660 filename

The -a option is used to display hidden files and directories in a command-line interface. Hidden files and directories are those that start with a dot (.) and are normally not shown by default. The -a option stands for “all” and shows all files and directories, including the hidden ones. The -a option can be used with commands such as ls, dir, or find to list or search for hidden files and directories. The -s, -lh, and -t options are not used to display hidden files and directories. The -s option stands for “size” and shows the size of files or directories in bytes. The -lh option stands for “long human-readable” and shows the size of files or directories in a more readable format, such as KB, MB, or GB. The -t option stands for “time” and sorts the files or directories by modification time. References:

Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 17

CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam …, page 107

Isolating the machine from the network is a good practice when troubleshooting a PC that is suspected of being infected with malware. This can prevent the malware from spreading to other devices on the network or communicating with external servers that may control or exploit the malware. Isolating the machine can be done by disconnecting the network cable, disabling the wireless adapter, or blocking the network traffic with a firewall.

A PowerShell script is a plain text file that contains one or more PowerShell commands. Scripts have a .ps1 file extension and can be run on your computer or in a remote session. PowerShell scripts can be used to automate tasks and change settings on Windows devices. To create and run a PowerShell script, you need a text editor (such as Visual Studio Code or Notepad) and the PowerShell Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE) console. You also need to enable the correct execution policy to allow scripts to run on your system