220-1201 CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2026) Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

The correct answer is B. Change the resolution.

According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives, troubleshooting display issues involves checking the display settings, including resolution, scaling, and orientation. When a projector is only showing part of a laptop screen:

The most common cause is that the laptop’s output resolution does not match the projector ' s native resolution. If the laptop is set to a resolution larger than what the projector supports, only a portion of the screen is visible.

The technician should first adjust the laptop ' s resolution to match the projector’s native resolution before attempting other options like extending or mirroring the desktop.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Extend the desktop: This is only used if the user wants to have two separate screens (dual monitors), not to fix partial display issues.

C. Mirror the desktop: Mirroring duplicates the laptop display but does not solve issues caused by resolution mismatch.

D. Switch the input source: Necessary only if the projector is on the wrong input, but the problem here is a partial display, not no display.

The correct answer is A. Better compatibility.

According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Software Troubleshooting and Virtualization:

Application virtualization allows applications to run in an isolated environment on a client device without being installed directly on the operating system.

This improves compatibility, as applications can operate regardless of OS differences, avoiding conflicts with other installed applications or system configurations.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Reduced network latency: Application virtualization does not inherently reduce network latency; network performance depends on connectivity.

C. Secure telnet access: Telnet is unrelated to application virtualization.

D. Metered utilization: Metering refers to cloud service usage or billing, not a benefit of application virtualization itself.

Check the exhibit diagram for both parts.

A close-up of several cables AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Part 2

A group of different colored rectangular objects AI-generated content may be incorrect.

The correct answer is B. Near-field communication (NFC).

According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices and Security:

NFC is commonly used for secure access control. Many organizations implement NFC-enabled ID badges or mobile devices to unlock doors, gates, or secure areas.

The mobile device communicates over a very short range (a few centimeters) with a reader to authenticate the user.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Hotspot: Provides internet access, not physical building access.

C. Infrared scanner: While used in some legacy devices, it is not commonly implemented for secure mobile access.

D. Geolocation: Can provide location awareness but does not grant direct access to secure physical spaces.

The correct answer is A. Loopback plug.

According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking:

A loopback plug is used to test a network interface card (NIC) port by sending a signal out of the port and back into the same port, verifying that the NIC can send and receive data properly.

This is a common diagnostic tool when troubleshooting network connectivity issues on individual devices.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Toner probe: Used for tracing and locating cables, not for testing NIC ports.

C. Cable tester: Checks the integrity of network cables but does not verify NIC send/receive functionality.

D. Network tap: Passively monitors network traffic but does not test the NIC port itself.

Wall Outlet

(empty — nothing goes directly to the wall)

Surge Protector (Power Source: Wall Outlet)

Printer

Scanner

UPS (Power Source: Surge Protector)

Computer

Monitor

Cable Modem

Wi-Fi Router

CompTIA A+ teaches that RAID 6 is the RAID level that uses double parity, allowing the array to survive the failure of two drives simultaneously. RAID 6 stripes data across all disks like RAID 5 but stores two independent sets of parity information, making it far more fault-tolerant.

RAID 0 has no parity and provides only performance. RAID 1 mirrors data but uses no parity. RAID 5 uses single parity and can tolerate only one disk failure. Because the question explicitly asks for double parity, only RAID 6 is correct.

The correct answer is D. Restart the device.

According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Mobile Devices and Security:

Warning messages like this can be caused by malicious pop-ups or temporary software glitches. Restarting the device is the safest and quickest first step to clear temporary processes, refresh the system, and remove transient malware or pop-up overlays.

This approach addresses the issue without risking data loss or unnecessary downtime.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Force close all running applications: May help if a specific app is causing the pop-up, but restarting achieves this more reliably and fully resets background processes.

B. Replace the tablet with a newer device: Unnecessary and costly for a potentially temporary software issue.

C. Reset the device to default settings: This is a last-resort action, as it erases personal data and settings; it is not the first step.

Port 22 is used by SSH (Secure Shell), which is the standard protocol for secure remote administration of network devices such as switches, routers, firewalls, and Linux-based systems. CompTIA A+ Core 1 emphasizes knowing common ports and selecting secure management methods. SSH provides encrypted communication for both authentication and the session data, protecting usernames, passwords, and command output from being intercepted by packet sniffers. This makes it the preferred choice over older remote access methods.

In contrast, port 23 is Telnet, which is also used for remote terminal access but sends traffic in cleartext, making it insecure and generally discouraged in modern environments. Port 21 is FTP control traffic, used for file transfers and typically not secure unless paired with FTPS or replaced by SFTP (which actually runs over SSH on port 22). Port 25 is SMTP, used for sending email between mail servers and is unrelated to remote device management. Therefore, for secure remote access to a network device, SSH on port 22 is the correct answer.

When installing copper network cable in spaces that serve as air-handling plenums, safety regulations require the use of plenum-rated cable. Suspended ceilings used for ventilation fall into this category. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that plenum spaces require cable with low-smoke, fire-resistant insulation made from specialized materials that limit toxic emissions during combustion.

Plenum-rated cabling (CMP) is designed to meet strict fire codes such as NFPA 70 (National Electrical Code). It prevents smoke-filled ventilation pathways, which could rapidly spread fire or toxic fumes throughout a building. Standard PVC-jacketed twisted pair cables are not permitted in plenum spaces because they produce thick, toxic smoke when burned.

Multimode cable refers to fiber optics, not copper cabling. Coaxial cable is used for broadband and certain RF applications but does not inherently meet plenum safety requirements unless specifically plenum-rated. Twisted pair describes the cable’s internal structure (Cat5e, Cat6, etc.), but it does not indicate the type of jacket. Only plenum-rated twisted pair is acceptable.

Therefore, the correct answer is Plenum, as it ensures compliance with safety standards and building codes, prevents hazardous conditions, and aligns with CompTIA best practices for structured cabling installations.

A container is the ideal environment for software testing when access to the underlying operating system must be restricted. CompTIA A+ explains that containers isolate applications from the host OS by packaging the app and all its dependencies into a controlled environment. This prevents the application from modifying or interfering with the host system and ensures predictable, consistent behavior across environments.

Unlike virtual machines, containers do not include a full OS installation; they share the host OS kernel but run in isolated user-space environments. This makes them lightweight, fast to deploy, and secure—perfect for developers testing new or potentially unstable applications.

A Type 2 hypervisor hosts full virtual machines but does not inherently limit OS access. A VDI provides remote desktops but is not designed for controlled application testing. A quarantined PC is used for isolating infected or suspicious systems, not structured development testing.

Thus, containers provide the controlled, restricted environment required.

Secure badging—often used with “pull printing” or “secure print release”—requires users to authenticate at the printer before documents are printed. CompTIA A+ highlights this feature as critical for protecting sensitive data in corporate environments. With badge-based printing, jobs stay in a secure print queue until the authorized user physically scans their badge.

This prevents confidential documents, like HR termination notices, from sitting unattended in the output tray. It also reduces print waste and ensures accountability for printed materials.

Duplex printing (B) simply prints double-sided pages. Printer sharing (C) allows multiple users to use a printer but does not provide security. Wireless encryption (D) protects network traffic but does not address abandoned print jobs.

Therefore, badging / secure print release is the correct protective measure.

Reasoning: A cable tester capable of testing Power over Ethernet (PoE) functionality can verify whether the switchport is providing the required power to the phone. This tool measures both the presence of data and the voltage or wattage being provided through the Ethernet cable.

This is the most effective way to confirm that PoE is available on the port.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Network tap:

A network tap is primarily used to monitor network traffic, not to test for PoE availability. It cannot verify if power is being supplied through the Ethernet cable.

C. Loopback plug:

A loopback plug is used to test the functionality of a network port by creating a loop for transmitted and received signals. It does not measure or verify PoE availability.

D. Toner probe:

A toner probe is used for tracing and identifying network cables. It cannot test for PoE functionality.

Practical Example:

A PoE phone might not turn on due to a misconfigured or faulty switchport. Using a cable tester capable of measuring PoE would help the technician determine if the switchport is supplying sufficient power to the phone.

CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:

Objective 2.1: Identify common networking hardware and tools, including PoE-enabled devices and cable testers.

Clock frequency is one of the most significant factors influencing a computer system’s processing performance. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) CPU and performance objectives, clock speed—measured in gigahertz (GHz)—determines how many instruction cycles a processor can perform per second.

Higher clock frequencies generally result in faster execution of instructions, leading to improved performance in both single-threaded and multi-threaded workloads. While modern CPUs also rely on core count, cache size, and architecture efficiency, clock frequency remains a primary metric for evaluating raw processing speed.

An integrated GPU affects graphics performance rather than overall CPU processing capability. Power connectors ensure proper electrical delivery but do not directly improve processing performance. The voltage regulator module (VRM) stabilizes and regulates power supplied to the CPU but does not itself increase processing speed.

CompTIA expects candidates to recognize clock frequency as a key determinant of CPU performance when upgrading or comparing processors.

Choppy or unintelligible audio is typically caused by issues with the microphone, such as poor quality, hardware defects, or misconfiguration.

Why Not A (Webcam): The webcam handles video, not audio.

Why Not B (Digitizer): A digitizer relates to touchscreens, not audio.

Why Not C (Inverter): Inverters manage power for displays, not audio.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.6, audio troubleshooting​.

Intermittent freezing followed by unexpected restarts after the system has been running for a while often points to a hardware stability problem that worsens with heat and time, rather than an immediate configuration or “not enough resources” issue. When diagnostics show no errors, the next CompTIA A+-style step is to look for physical signs of failing components. Swollen or leaking capacitors on the motherboard or in the power delivery area can cause unstable voltage regulation as the system warms up, leading to input lag, lockups, and spontaneous reboots even during light tasks like reading email. A visual inspection can quickly confirm this failure mode and is an appropriate next troubleshooting action when software and basic diagnostics are inconclusive.

Replacing the power supply with a higher wattage is not the best next step because the workload described is not high draw, and the symptom is not clearly tied to peak load; if a PSU is suspect, the usual step is testing with a known-good PSU of correct specs, not simply “higher wattage.” Increasing RAM is unnecessary because the system meets requirements and this would more commonly cause persistent slowness, not sudden restarts. A CMOS battery issue typically causes time resets or BIOS setting loss, not freezing and random reboots after hours.

Outdated drivers: Device functionality issues after an OS upgrade are often caused by incompatible or outdated drivers.

Disabled settings: Some features may be disabled during the upgrade process, requiring re-enablement.

Why Not A (Incorrect configuration): This is unlikely given the issues arose only after the upgrade.

Why Not B (OS and device incompatibility): Upgrades check for compatibility before installation.

Why Not D (Full storage): Storage issues typically prevent installation, not device functionality.

Why Not F (Corrupted registry entries): While possible, this is less common than the selected answers.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.5, troubleshooting OS upgrades​.

Whenever a CPU heat sink is removed or replaced, thermal paste must be reapplied. Thermal paste fills microscopic gaps between the CPU heat spreader and the heat sink, ensuring efficient heat transfer. Without it, there is a significant air gap, which acts as an insulator, causing CPU temperatures to rise dramatically even under light load. CompTIA A+ stresses thermal compound application as a key step in CPU cooling installation.

The scenario indicates that temperatures increased drastically after upgrading to a better heat sink. A higher-performing heat sink should improve temperatures, not worsen them—unless a critical installation step was missed. Missing thermal paste is the most common cause of this symptom and easily explains the sudden overheating.

Decreased CPU voltage would lower temperatures, not raise them. Higher fan RPM increases cooling efficiency, not reduces it. Airflow interruption is possible but less likely in a simple heat sink upgrade scenario unless the technician installed the CPU cooler incorrectly; however, the most direct and common cause described by CompTIA is missing thermal paste.

Thus, D is the correct answer.

CompTIA A+ teaches that the default gateway is required for any device to communicate with external networks such as the internet. Without a configured default gateway, the computer can communicate only with devices on the same local subnet explaining why the file server is reachable.

DNS and IPv6 settings are not the issue; without a gateway, external routing cannot occur. Flushing DNS affects hostname resolution, not routing. NetBIOS settings have no effect on internet connectivity.

Adding or correcting the default gateway (usually the router’s LAN IP, such as 192.168.1.1) will allow the PC to route traffic beyond its local network.

This aligns precisely with CompTIA’s troubleshooting steps for missing or incorrect gateway configuration.