220-1201 CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2025) Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

CompTIA A+ teaches that vertical lines on scanned or copied documents but not printed documents indicate a dirty or smudged scanner glass or ADF glass strip. Dust, ink smears, or debris create a line because the scanning sensor repeatedly passes over the same contaminated area.

If printing works normally, internal printer components such as the transfer roller or pickup rollers are not at fault. Maintenance kits apply to internal wear components like rollers, belts, or fusers not scanning artifacts.

Cleaning the scanner glass or ADF strip directly addresses this common problem. The A+ exam frequently includes troubleshooting questions about print vs. scan artifacts, and this scenario is a classic example.

Therefore, the correct solution is to clean the glass bed (or ADF strip).

Port 110 is used by POP3, a protocol designed for downloading emails from a remote server to a local client. POP3 does not inherently synchronize changes (such as read status, folder organization, or deletions) between devices. The customer wants a more secure connection that automatically synchronizes with the server, which directly aligns with the functions of IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol).

IMAP typically uses port 143 for unencrypted connections and 993 for secure, encrypted connections (IMAPS). It is designed for modern email usage—supporting multi-device access, live synchronization across clients, and server-stored mail. When a user reads, deletes, or moves an email using IMAP, these changes are reflected on the server and visible on every device logged into the same account.

CompTIA A+ emphasizes that IMAP is preferred for users requiring constant synchronization, mobile access, and cloud-based email management, while POP3 is considered outdated. IMAP also supports secure, encrypted communication when paired with SSL/TLS.

HTTPS and SFTP do not handle email retrieval, and SMTP is a sending protocol, not a retrieval protocol. Therefore, IMAP is the only correct and CompTIA-aligned upgrade option.

The default gateway is the network device responsible for routing traffic from a local computer to destinations outside its subnet. When a new firewall is deployed and intended to manage outbound traffic, client devices must be configured to send packets to this firewall. CompTIA A+ identifies the gateway setting as the key parameter that determines where a workstation sends its external-bound traffic.

By updating the gateway address to point to the new firewall’s internal interface, all internet-bound and off-subnet traffic will now pass through the firewall for filtering, inspection, and routing. This ensures correct traffic flow and enforces security policies.

Changing the VPN settings (A) does not affect local traffic routing unless a VPN tunnel is active. Subnet mask adjustments (C) determine the network size but do not control routing. VLAN settings (D) require switch configuration, not workstation changes, and do not dictate default routing behavior.

Thus, modifying the gateway is the correct and necessary step to route all traffic through the newly implemented firewall.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the foundational computing components: virtualized hardware, storage, networking, and hypervisor resources. CompTIA A+ explains that customers using IaaS are responsible for installing and maintaining:

The operating system

Applications

Patches, updates, and configurations

This model gives organizations maximum flexibility because they can build custom server environments without purchasing physical hardware.

In contrast:

SaaS (A) provides fully managed applications—users do not manage OS or software.

PaaS (B) provides a development platform and tools but does not allow OS management.

XaaS (D) is a broad term meaning “anything as a service,” not a specific model.

Thus, IaaS is the only model where OS-level control remains with the customer.

A sandbox is an isolated virtual environment, often used for testing code or software safely without affecting the host system.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Virtualization:

“A sandbox provides an isolated environment, often implemented as a virtual machine, to safely test applications or code.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers to provide error detection and correction, improving reliability in critical systems. It is designed to detect and correct single-bit errors, ensuring data integrity in environments where stability is paramount.

Option A (SODIMM): Incorrect. SODIMM is typically used in laptops, not servers.

Option B (Rambus): Incorrect. Rambus is an outdated RAM type and not commonly used today.

Option C (DDR3): Incorrect. While DDR3 is a type of RAM, it is not specific to servers and does not provide error correction.

To allow multiple users to print to networked printers:

Printer shares enable users to access printers shared on the network.

Print servers manage print jobs and provide centralized control of printing.

Why Not B (DHCP server): DHCP is unrelated to print management.

Why Not D (Printer subnet): Subnets group devices but don’t manage printing.

Why Not E (SMB configuration): SMB is for file sharing, not specifically print management.

Why Not F (Printer Wi-Fi settings): These settings are irrelevant since the printers use Ethernet.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 4.6, printer configuration​.

Badging is a form of authentication that requires employees to use a badge or ID card to release print jobs. This solution reduces unnecessary printing by ensuring only authorized users print.

Why Not A (Access control list): While ACLs manage permissions, they are not used for physical authentication at printers.

Why Not B (Audit logging): Audit logs track actions but do not restrict printer access.

Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but doesn’t enforce authentication.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, authentication mechanisms​.

ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers because it can detect and correct memory errors, providing greater stability and reliability for mission-critical environments.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Types of RAM:

“Servers often require ECC memory, which can detect and correct single-bit errors, preventing data corruption and increasing system reliability.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Memory Technologies

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2

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The symptoms clearly point to a hardware-level signal degradation issue, which is most commonly caused by a malfunctioning or damaged Wi-Fi antenna in the smartphone. CompTIA A+ mobile device troubleshooting emphasizes comparing the affected device's signal strength with other nearby devices. In this case, other devices in the same location have stronger Wi-Fi signals, meaning the network itself is functioning normally. The consistent low signal across multiple networks strongly suggests antenna failure.

Modern smartphones use internal antenna assemblies located along the frame or behind the back cover. If the antenna becomes loose, damaged, or obstructed, the device may show weak or unstable Wi-Fi connectivity, especially in crowded environments where strong, stable reception is required to maintain a connection.

Option B (outdated Wi-Fi standard) would limit speed but not cause significant signal weakness compared to surrounding devices. Option C (interference) affects all devices in an area similarly—not just one device. Option D (power settings) may reduce background activity or scanning frequency, but it does not cause consistently low signal strength.

Therefore, the most likely cause is a malfunctioning Wi-Fi antenna inside the smartphone.

A network switch operates at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) of the OSI model and forwards traffic using MAC addresses. CompTIA A+ teaches that switches maintain a MAC address table, learning which devices reside on each port. When a frame arrives, the switch checks the destination MAC address and forwards it only to the appropriate port, reducing unnecessary traffic and improving performance.

Routers, on the other hand, operate at Layer 3 and forward traffic based on IP addresses, not MAC addresses. Firewalls inspect traffic for security policies and operate across multiple OSI layers but do not perform MAC-based forwarding. A gateway is a broad term that generally refers to a device connecting different networks or protocols, typically involving routing, not MAC-based switching.

Thus, the device specifically responsible for forwarding frames based on MAC address lookup is the switch.

The requirements describe an environment transitioning gradually from on-site hardware to scalable cloud services. The business wishes to continue using its existing local equipment until end of life, while also expanding computing resources beyond what the on-premises infrastructure can handle. Additionally, the cloud environment must be able to share data with the internal data center.

This aligns perfectly with a hybrid cloud model, which CompTIA A+ defines as a combination of private (on-premises) and public cloud resources operating together. Hybrid cloud enables secure data sharing, workload distribution, and scaling without eliminating existing hardware investments. It allows organizations to offload high-demand processes to the cloud while maintaining sensitive data or critical services on-site.

A private cloud (D) would not allow scaling into a public provider efficiently. A public cloud (A) replaces internal resources instead of complementing them. A community cloud (B) is shared among organizations with similar compliance requirements—not applicable here. SaaS (E) refers to hosted applications, not infrastructure scalability.

Thus, a Hybrid cloud model fulfills all stated requirements: seamless data sharing, scalable computing, and continued use of on-site equipment.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

RAID 6 uses two parity blocks, allowing it to tolerate the failure of two drives without losing data.

If print quality remains poor after replacing the ink cartridge, the next step is to clean the printheads. Printheads can become clogged with dried ink, especially in inkjet printers, causing streaks or faded output.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Troubleshoot printing problems:

“Poor print quality after replacing cartridges is commonly caused by clogged or dirty printheads. Use the printer's cleaning cycle or manually clean the printheads as needed.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)

CompTIA networking fundamentals describe VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) as a method to segment network traffic logically, even while using the same physical switch hardware.

A VLAN allows a company to:

Separate traffic by department

Improve security

Reduce broadcast domains

Control inter-department access

To separate accounting and customer service networks, VLANs are the industry-standard and the CompTIA-approved method.

Why the other options are incorrect

A. VPN – Used for secure remote connections, not internal LAN segmentation.

B. DNS – Resolves hostnames to IPs, not used for network separation.

D. DHCP – Assigns IP addresses; does not isolate network groups.

Final Answer: C

If flipping the cable helps but the problem is isolated to this device (not others of the same type), the most likely cause is a dirty or damaged charging port on the device itself. Dirt or debris inside the port can prevent a good electrical connection, causing the cable to work intermittently.

A distorted image where the screen is not symmetrical (wider at the top or bottom) is typically due to keystone distortion. Adjusting the projector's keystone settings corrects this trapezoidal effect caused by an angled projection.

The appropriate network type for this scenario is a Local Area Network (LAN), which is designed for small, localized networks, such as within a single building or room. LANs are ideal for gaming because they provide high-speed, low-latency connections.

Option A (SAN): Incorrect. A Storage Area Network is used for data storage, not for gaming or general networking.

Option B (MAN): Incorrect. A Metropolitan Area Network covers a city or campus, far exceeding the scope needed for a gaming setup in a single room.

Option D (PAN): Incorrect. A Personal Area Network is designed for a single user, such as Bluetooth devices, and would not support multiple devices connecting to a game server.

The key detail in the ipconfig output is that the system is receiving an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DHCP server information via DHCP, but the DNS servers shown are 8.8.8.8 and 8.8.4.4, which are Google’s public DNS servers. In most corporate networks, DNS is provided internally by the DHCP server—usually the same device assigning the IP address. When DNS values are different from DHCP-provided defaults, it indicates manual DNS configuration.

CompTIA A+ emphasizes that mismatched DNS settings can cause browsing issues, name-resolution delays, or an inability to access internal resources. DNS is critical because it translates domain names into IP addresses; if manually configured, the device bypasses the organization’s DNS server and may not resolve internal hostnames.

The subnet mask is correct for a Class B private network subdivided using /24 (255.255.255.0). NetBIOS being enabled is common and not a cause of connectivity issues here. DHCP being enabled is normal and functioning correctly, as shown by the proper IP lease obtained.

Thus, the anomalous and most likely problematic configuration is manually configured DNS, making Option D correct.