220-1202 CompTIA A+ Core 2 (2026 Exam Update) Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

BSOD after driver installation suggests a compatibility issue.Safe Mode allows rollback of driversthat may be causing the crash.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“If a BSOD occurs after a driver update, boot into Safe Mode and roll back to the previous driver version to restore system stability.”

The correct answer is C. Disconnect the power, because safety is the first priority when working inside a computer case. Before opening the system, all power sources must be removed to prevent electrical shock and hardware damage.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, technicians should always shut down the system and disconnect the power cable before opening a computer. Even powered-off systems can still carry electrical current if they remain plugged in.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that unexpected noises are often caused by fans, loose cables, or failing hard drives. Opening the case while the system is powered can cause injury or damage sensitive components.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces the standard safety sequence: power off the system, unplug it, discharge residual power, and then apply grounding measures before touching internal components.

Because disconnecting power eliminates electrical hazards and protects both the technician and the equipment, C is the correct answer.

Adding ten high-end graphics/animation desktops can dramatically increase the electrical load on the room’s existing circuits. High-performance CPUs and GPUs draw substantially more wattage than typical office PCs, and that wattage translates into higher current (amperage) on the circuit. Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual explains the relationship V × A = W and warns that wiring and circuits have amperage ratings; pushing too much current can overheat wiring and trigger safety devices. It also explains that circuit breakers are rated for a specified amperage and will open (trip) when overloaded to prevent overheating and damage. Therefore, before deployment, the technician should calculate expected power draw per system and ensure the desktops are distributed across sufficient circuits (or that electrical upgrades are made) to avoid repeated breaker trips, overheating risks, and downtime. While temperature and humidity matter for environmental control, the question is specifically about introducing multiple power-hungry workstations, making circuit power consumption the most critical planning factor for safe, stable operation. This aligns with A+ operational/environmental concepts around proper power handling and avoiding overload conditions.

The correct answer is C. Browser policy, because the listed requirements apply specifically to browser-level behavior and settings, not general network traffic or system-wide configuration. Browser policies allow administrators to centrally control how browsers behave on managed systems.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that modern browsers support administrative templates or policies that govern password storage, trusted sites, security levels, history handling, and URL restrictions. These policies ensure consistent behavior across all user systems without relying on manual configuration.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide clarifies that while Group Policy can deploy browser policies, the object being configured is still the browser itself. The question asks what is best to configure, not how it is delivered. Browser policies directly control password management, trusted URLs, and security zones.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further notes that web proxies and gateways filter traffic at the network level and cannot control local browser features such as password storage or history retention.

Because every listed requirement is a browser-specific control, the most accurate and targeted solution is Browser policy, making C the correct answer.

Managed Detection and Response (MDR)involves outsourcing security monitoring to a third-party that uses multiple tools and analytics.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“MDR providers handle threat detection and response using a combination of advanced tools, analytics, and expert personnel.”

These symptoms strongly suggest malware activity—likely from the newly installed app. The first action should be torun a malware scanto detect and isolate malicious software.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“Signs of malware infection include rapid battery drain and overheating. The first step should be a malware scan using trusted mobile antivirus apps.”

The correct answer is A. gpedit.msc, which opens the Local Group Policy Editor. Group Policy allows administrators to configure and enforce security-related settings, including screensaver timeout, password protection, and automatic locking, across systems or user accounts.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, Group Policy is commonly used to enforce security policies such as inactivity timeouts, especially in departments handling sensitive data like finance or HR.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that screensaver timeout settings can be configured under User Configuration → Administrative Templates → Control Panel → Personalization, ensuring systems lock automatically after a defined period of inactivity.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that tools like certmgr.msc manage certificates, devmgmt.msc manages hardware devices, and perfmon.msc monitors system performance. None of these tools control user security policies.

Because the requirement is to enforce a shorter screensaver timeout for security, Group Policy Editor is the correct and professional tool, making A the correct answer.

SSH (Secure Shell) allows encrypted console sessions to access and administer remote servers.

From Quentin Docter – Complete Study Guide:

“Secure Shell (SSH) provides an encrypted console session to manage Linux, UNIX, or network devices securely over TCP port 22.” .

The correct answer is D. Chain of custody process, because chain of custody ensures that evidence collected during an incident response is tracked, preserved, and legally defensible. It documents who collected the evidence, when it was collected, how it was stored, and who accessed it throughout the investigation.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, chain of custody is essential when evidence may be used in disciplinary actions, audits, or legal proceedings. Any gap in documentation can render evidence inadmissible.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that chain of custody provides accountability and prevents claims of evidence tampering. Each transfer of evidence must be logged and verified.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that while order of volatility determines the sequence of data collection, it does not track ownership or handling. Data integrity best practices ensure evidence is not altered, but they do not provide a record of custody.

Because the question focuses on handling and accountability, the required process is chain of custody, making D the correct answer.

exFATis the only listed file system that supports both read and write access across Windows, macOS, and Linux (with appropriate drivers). It’s optimized for flash storage and external drives.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“exFAT is a lightweight file system with cross-platform read/write support, ideal for use on removable drives when compatibility is essential.”

Before deploying an application update broadly, best practice is to test it in an isolated environment to avoid breaking production systems. The All-in-One guide defines sandbox testing clearly: “a sandbox is a place where you can experiment without messing up the primary system,” typically a virtualized environment, and it “entails checking out new and updated applications without putting the systems and data you depend on at risk.” That directly aligns with rolling out a new application update across the organization.

Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual repeats the same concept: sandbox testing uses an isolated environment and snapshots to test changes safely before production deployment. It’s positioned as a documented business process within change-management best practices, reinforcing why it comes early—before impact spreads.

A backup/rollback plan is important too, but the question asks for the first step when applying a new update to everyone. Testing first helps identify compatibility issues, installation failures, and side effects early—so you don’t deploy a bad update at scale. Therefore, Sandbox testing (C) is correct.

A corruptedMaster Boot Record (MBR)is a common issue after disk manipulation. Booting from installation media and using tools like bootrec to repair the MBR can resolve the problem.

Travis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guideexplains:

“A damaged MBR may result in the OS not loading. Booting from recovery or installation media and selecting startup repair or running bootrec commands can restore functionality.”

An in-place upgrade is the fastest and most efficient way to upgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 11 while keeping all user data, applications, and settings intact. This method is often used when the hardware meets Windows 11 requirements and no system reconfiguration is necessary.

A. gpupdate is used to refresh Group Policy settings — unrelated to OS upgrades.

B. Image deployment typically replaces the current OS and may not retain user data unless specifically customized.

C. A clean install requires formatting the drive and starting fresh, which removes all data.

Linux commonly uses Linux-native filesystems (such as ext4, XFS, BTRFS, and others). The All-in-One Exam Guide explicitly states: “Linux users have lots to choose from; most use ext4, but you will see others with names like BTRFS, XFS, ZFS, and so on.” That directly links XFS to Linux.

By contrast, the same source identifies NTFS, FAT32, and exFAT as Windows file systems, with exFAT mainly for removable media, showing that FAT32/NTFS are primarily Windows-associated in A+ context. Quentin Docter also explains Linux’s ext-family filesystems (ext3/ext4) as Linux defaults in many distributions, reinforcing that Linux has its own native filesystem ecosystem rather than using NTFS/APFS as its typical format.

APFS is Apple’s filesystem for macOS/iOS devices, not Linux. FAT32 is cross-platform but not “typically associated” with Linux as a primary filesystem. Therefore, XFS (B) is the best answer.

Smishing (SMS phishing) is a type of social engineering attack where attackers send fraudulent text messages to trick users into revealing sensitive information or downloading malware. These messages often impersonate banks, delivery services, or official institutions to lure the victim into clicking malicious links.

A. Impersonation is an in-person or voice-based tactic.

B. Vishing refers to voice phishing over phone calls.

C. Spear phishing is a targeted email-based phishing method.

To verify integrity, you must confirm the file you downloaded matches the vendor’s original file and hasn’t been altered in transit or replaced by malware. Quentin Docter explains the best preventive measure is to create a Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA) hash of the executable and store it separately; before running the installer, “run the hashing against the install and check its signature. If the signature matches, then the installer has not been tampered with.” The All-in-One Exam Guide reinforces that verifying installers “always involves one or more cryptographic techniques such as hashing and/or code signing,” and defines a checksum/hash as a cryptographic “digital fingerprint” you can recompute after downloading to confirm the fingerprints match. Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual states the same action step: if you manually download an installer, “verify its code signature or use hashing to confirm the installer you downloaded matches the checksums published by the vendor.”

Private browsing and Secure DNS do not validate file integrity, and trusted plug-ins are unrelated. Hence, Hashing (C) is correct.

Spear phishingtargets a specific individual using personalized tactics, as seen in emails impersonating a CEO to deceive a secretary.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“Spear phishing targets specific individuals or roles within an organization using tailored messages to increase success rates.”

The correct answer is C. net use, which is the Windows command-line utility used to display, create, and remove mapped network drives and SMB (Server Message Block) connections. When working re motely through command-line interfaces, technicians often rely on net use to quickly verify which network shares are currently connected.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that SMB is the protocol Windows uses for file and printer sharing, and mapped drives are maintained through SMB sessions. The net use command lists all active connections, including the drive letter, remote UNC path, and connection status.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide highlights that net use is especially valuable for remote troubleshooting because it does not require a graphical interface. This makes it ideal when administering multiple systems via command prompt or remote shell.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that systeminfo displays OS and hardware details, hostname only shows the system name, and nslookup is used for DNS queries. None of those commands provide information about mapped SMB shares.

Since the task is to verify existing SMB mappings, net use is the only command that directly fulfills this requirement, making C the correct answer.

The correct answer is D. Roaming profiles, because roaming profiles allow users to log in to any domain-joined workstation and automatically access their personal settings, documents, and configuration without storing data locally on each machine. This is ideal for environments with hot-desking or shared workstations.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, roaming profiles store user data centrally on a server rather than on individual computers. When a user logs in, their profile is loaded; when they log out, changes are saved back to the server. This minimizes data duplication and reduces the risk of data being left behind on shared systems.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that roaming profiles improve security by preventing sensitive user data from being permanently stored on multiple endpoints. This also simplifies backup and recovery, since user data resides in a centralized location.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that portable drives introduce data loss risks, cloud email only addresses messaging data, and certificate storage does not manage user profiles or documents.

Because the goal is to maintain data security while allowing mobility and minimizing data transfer, roaming profiles are the most appropriate solution, making D the correct answer.