220-1202 CompTIA A+ Core 2 2025 Exam Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

3G networks generally do not provide the bandwidth required for seamless HD video streaming. With only two signal bars and a 3G connection, the mobile device likely cannot maintain the necessary data throughput, resulting in timeouts or buffering failures. This is a classic symptom of insufficient network speed or signal strength.

A. Lack of Wi-Fi may contribute, but the root cause is the low mobile bandwidth, not the Wi-Fi state.

B. A website subscription lapse would return an account error, not a timeout.

D. Full device storage can affect downloads but not streaming from the internet.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In emotionally sensitive situations, it is critical that the technicianprojects confidenceand maintains a calm, positive demeanor to reassure the customer.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Confidence and empathy are key when working with distressed users. Demonstrating competence can help ease the customer's anxiety.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) define the mandatory steps and expectations technicians must follow during support calls. This includes documentation standards such as logging user info, asset details, and issue descriptions in the ticketing system. Implementing SOPs ensures consistency and accountability.

A. SLAs define response/resolution times but not documentation practices.

B. Call categories organize types of issues but don't guide technician actions.

D. Knowledge base articles provide solutions to known problems but don't ensure proper ticket documentation.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Content filtering allows administrators to block or allow access to websites based on categories (e.g., social media, adult content, streaming). On a SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) router, this is often built-in or available via DNS-level filtering, and is the most appropriate method for enforcing browsing policies without needing to touch each individual device.

A. Secure management access protects router admin interfaces but doesn’t control user browsing.

B. Group Policy Editor is a Windows tool, not used on routers.

D. A firewall can block specific IPs or ports, but it doesn't categorize web content.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

RAM is an electrostatic-sensitive component. When removing or transporting RAM modules, they should be stored in antistatic bags to protect against electrostatic discharge (ESD), which can damage the memory. This is a standard best practice in hardware handling.

A. Demagnetization is not applicable to RAM.

C. Plugging in power to ground is not safe or recommended for static protection.

D. Installing identical memory pairs is applicable for dual-channel configuration, but not directly related to transporting or handling RAM.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Before any change is implemented, it must bedocumentedas part of change management procedures. This ensures transparency, review, and tracking.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Documenting a change is the first step in change management. This includes defining the scope, purpose, impact, and implementation plan before approval or scheduling.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Anincident reportsummarizes what happened during an outage, the timeline, the actions taken, and the resolution, which is exactly what management typically requests post-incident.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Incident reports document the events of an IT issue or outage, including detection, response, and resolution. They are crucial for post-incident review and management accountability.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

UPS batteries are heavy and often located at the bottom of racks to maintain balance. Safe removal requires the use of correct lifting techniques to avoid injury. OSHA and workplace safety standards emphasize ergonomic handling when dealing with heavy equipment.

A. Fire suppression readiness is important for fire safety but not specifically relevant to battery removal.

C. Antistatic bags are for electronic components, not heavy battery modules.

D. A face mask is not generally necessary unless there is a chemical leak, which is not indicated here.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Facial recognition is a biometric authentication method that ties access to a unique physical feature of the user. Unlike passcodes or pattern locks—which can be easily shared—facial recognition provides a more secure and non-transferable form of access. It also enhances user convenience and is widely supported by modern smartphones.

A. Pattern locks can still be shared and are less secure.

C. Device encryption protects data but does not prevent screen access if a passcode is shared.

D. Multifactor authentication typically applies to app or account access, not basic phone unlocking.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To work remotely without physically transporting a workstation, the user needs:

C. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol): Allows graphical remote access to a Windows PC at the office.

D. VPN (Virtual Private Network): Establishes a secure tunnel to access the corporate network remotely, making the internal PC reachable.

A. SPICE is used in virtual machine environments and is not typically used for end-user remote desktop access.

B. SSH is a text-based remote access tool used mostly for Linux systems.

E. RMM (Remote Monitoring and Management) is used by IT administrators for support — not end-user remote access.

F. WinRM is used for Windows remote management via PowerShell, not for full desktop access.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

This is likely arogue antivirusor scareware tactic. The user shouldnot click "OK"and instead check Windows Security (or third-party antivirus) status and ensure real-time protection is enabled.

FromMark Soper – Mike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“Users should verify security center settings if receiving suspicious pop-ups. Clicking unknown software updates can install malware. It’s safer to validate protection through legitimate system tools.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Virtualizationallows the legacy OS to be run in a virtual machine (VM) on top of the newer OS. This method provides backward compatibility without requiring outdated operating systems on physical hardware.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Using virtualization is a preferred method when legacy applications are needed after migrating to newer operating systems. It allows legacy environments to exist securely within a modern OS framework.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Single sign-on (SSO)allows users to authenticate once and gain access to multiple systems without re-entering credentials, which significantly enhances user convenience while maintaining security.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Single sign-on streamlines authentication by allowing users to log in once and access all authorized resources, reducing credential fatigue and improving security.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) outlines the rules and guidelines for employees or users regarding the appropriate use of company systems, resources, and internet access. It defines permitted and prohibited activities, helping to mitigate security risks and establish clear behavioral expectations.

B. MNDA (Mutual Non-Disclosure Agreement) deals with confidentiality, not usage guidelines.

C. DRM (Digital Rights Management) controls access to copyrighted content.

D. EULA (End User License Agreement) pertains to software licensing, not internal policies.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A synthetic full backup combines the last full backup with subsequent incremental backups to create a new full backup without re-reading data from the source system. This method significantly reduces the backup window and network impact. It is especially useful when traditional full backups are too time-consuming.

A. Changing the backup window only shifts timing, not duration.

B. Incremental weekly backups would lack a proper full recovery point and aren't ideal alone.

C. Storage space isn't the bottleneck in backup speed—it’s read/write operations and network load.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

When an OS reaches its end of life (EOL), it no longer receives updates or support, including critical security patches.

From the Quentin Docter Study Guide:

“End-of-life means the manufacturer no longer supports the OS with updates or security patches, which exposes systems to vulnerabilities unless upgraded”.

All-in-One Exam Guide adds:

“End-of-life notifications serve as a final warning that continued use of the OS will be insecure and unsupported. It’s crucial for administrators to plan migration”.

An MSDS providessafety and emergency procedures, such as what to do if a battery leaks or catches fire. It is not a technical or setup guide.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“An MSDS contains safety information, including handling, storage, and emergency procedures related to potentially hazardous components like UPS batteries.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Cryptominersexploit system resources to mine cryptocurrency, often without user consent, leading to high CPU and GPU usage.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Cryptomining malware can cause significant performance degradation by monopolizing system resources like CPU and GPU to mine digital currency.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Authenticator apps, such as Google Authenticator or Microsoft Authenticator, can be configured to sendpush notificationsto users for approval when logging in. This is a form of multi-factor authentication.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Push-based two-factor authentication uses an authenticator app to send a notification to a mobile device. The user must approve the login attempt in real time, ensuring the request is valid.”