CAS-004 CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

B. Log aggregator: A log aggregator is a tool that collects, parses, and stores logs from various sources, such as devices, applications, servers, etc. A log aggregator can help meet the requirement of retaining logs for 365 days by providing a centralized and scalable storage solution1 .

D. PAM: PAM stands for privileged access management. It is a technology that controls and monitors the access of privileged users (such as administrators) to critical systems and data. PAM can help meet the requirement of controlling and tracking privileged user access by enforcing policies such as least privilege, multifactor authentication, password rotation, session recording, etc. .

F. SIEM: SIEM stands for security information and event management. It is a technology that analyzes and correlates logs from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents. SIEM can helpmeet the requirement of identifying ransomware threats and zero-day vulnerabilities by providing real-time alerts, threat intelligence feeds, incident response workflows, etc. .

Utilizing watermarks in the images that are specific to each external party would best accomplish the goal of tracing back any leaked draft images. Watermarks are visible or invisible marks that can be embedded in digital images to indicate ownership, authenticity, or origin. Watermarks can also be used to identify the recipient of the image and deter unauthorized copying or distribution. If a draft image is leaked to the public, the watermark can reveal which external party was responsible for the breach.

The dbadmin user is consulting the community for help via Internet Relay Chat. The clues in the given information point to the dbadmin user having established an Internet Relay Chat (IRC) connection to an external address at 7:55 a.m. This connection is still active, and only a few kilobytes of data have been transferred since the start of the connection. The sample outboundrequest payload of "JOIN #community" also suggests that the user is trying to join an IRC chatroom. This suggests that the dbadmin user is using the IRC connection to consult the community for help with a problem. Therefore, the root cause of the anomalous activity is likely the dbadmin user consulting the community for help via IRC. References: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide, Chapter 10, Investigating Intrusions and Suspicious Activity.

OCSP stapling and HSTS are the best options to meet the requirements of reducing the risk of on-path attacks and implementing stronger digital trust. OCSP stapling allows the social media servers to improve TLS performance by sending a signed certificate status along with the certificate, eliminating the need for the client to contact the CA separately. HSTS allows the social media servers to inform the client to only use HTTPS and prevent downgrade attacks. 

A denial of service (DoS) attack is a malicious attempt to disrupt the normal functioning of a server by overwhelming it with requests or traffic1. One possible indicator of a DoS attack is a large number of connections from a single source IP address1. In this case, the output of netstat -an shows that there are many connections from 213.37.55.67 with different port numbers and in TIME WAIT state23. This suggests that the attacker is sending many SYN packets to initiate connections but not completing them, thus exhausting the server’s resources and preventing legitimate users from accessing it1.

To securely operate the camera, the security analyst should recommend hardening the camera configuration. This involves several steps:

Changing Default Credentials: Default usernames and passwords are a common vulnerability. They should be replaced with strong, unique passwords.

Disabling Unnecessary Services and Ports: The numerous open ports and insecure protocols should be reviewed, and any unnecessary services should be disabled to reduce the attack surface.

Firmware Updates: Ensuring the camera's firmware is up to date will mitigate known vulnerabilities.

Enable Encryption: If possible, enable encryption for both data in transit and at rest to protect the video stream and other communications from interception.

This approach addresses the identified vulnerabilities directly and ensures that the device is more secure. Simply sending logs to the SIEM or isolating the camera might not fully mitigate the risks associated with default settings and open ports.

Comprehensive and Detailed in-Depth Explanation:

In cybersecurity and risk management, the four primary risk response techniques are:

Accept:Choosing to acknowledge the risk without taking any measures to reduce it. This usually applies when the cost of mitigation outweighs the potential impact.

Avoid:Taking actions to completely eliminate the risk, such as discontinuing a risky activity or process.

Transfer:Shifting the risk to a third party, such as through insurance or outsourcing.

Mitigate:Implementing controls to reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk.

Why the Correct Answer is D (Mitigate):

The company's finance department implementedaccess controlsto restrict data access to only authorized personnel.

Although the data is exported to anunencrypted file, therisk of unauthorized accessis reduced through the implementation of access control mechanisms.

This is a classic example ofrisk mitigation, where the company does not eliminate the risk entirely (since the file remains unencrypted) but reduces its potential impact through technical controls.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Accept:The company did not simply accept the risk without taking action; they actively implemented controls.

B. Avoid:The risk was not eliminated by changing the system or discontinuing the practice.

C. Transfer:The company did not shift the risk to another entity, such as an insurance provider or third-party service.

Extract from CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Study Guide:

According to theCompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guide, risk mitigation is defined as the process of implementing controls to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk. In this scenario, byrestricting file access to appropriate personnel, the company effectively mitigates the risk of data exposure, despite the file being unencrypted.

The command depicted is indicative of a reverse shell, which is a type of shell where the target system initiates an outgoing connection to a remote host, and then standard input and output of the command line interface on the target system is redirected through this connection to the remote host. This is typically used by an attacker after exploitation to open a remote command line interface to control the compromised machine.

Step by Step Explanation:

Server authentication certificates are used to secure web communication (e.g., HTTPS).

Submitting a CSR (Certificate Signing Request) for a server authentication certificate ensures the web services can securely establish encrypted communication.

Other options, such as email encryption or software signing, do not apply in this scenario.

A Content Delivery Network (CDN) is designed to serve content to end-users with high availability and high performance. By implementing a CDN, the company can distribute the content across multiple geographically dispersed servers, thereby reducing latency for users far from the West Coast data centers, including those on the East Coast of the United States and in Europe.

Step by Step Explanation:

Creating an organizational risk register ensures the issue is documented and prioritized for mitigation, aligning with risk management best practices.

Accepting the risk is not advisable due to the financial implications of failure.

Implementing network compensating controls does not address server reliability.

Purchasing insurance only offsets financial risk and does not ensure system functionality.

Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) solutions provide continuous monitoring and response to advanced threats. They can help mitigate the risk of not having visibility into off-network activities by detecting, investigating, and responding to suspicious activities on endpoints, regardless of their location.

Comprehensive and Detailed in-Depth Explanation:

Context:

Confidentialityis the highest priority, as the primary goal is toprotect PII (Personally Identifiable Information).

Availabilityis the second priority, crucial due to thelow latency requirementof medical devices.

Integrityis the third priority, essential to maintain accurate patient data.

The environment consists ofon-site applicationsinteracting with medical devices, wherecloud migration is not feasibledue to latency concerns.

Why the Correct Answer is C (Enable encryption at rest on medical devices):

Sinceconfidentialityis the top priority, enablingencryption at reston devices ensures thatsensitive data is protectedeven if the devices are compromised.

Medical devices can storePII locally, andencryption at restensures that even if physical or unauthorized access occurs, the data remainsconfidential.

Encrypting data at rest mitigates the risk of data leakage in scenarios likedevice theft or unauthorized access.

Given that the primary goal isconfidentiality, this action aligns with theCIA triadpriorities mentioned.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Move the application server to a network load balancing cluster:

This primarily addressesavailability, notconfidentiality.

Moving to a load-balanced setup may improveuptimebut doesnot directly protect PII.

B. Move the application to a CSP (Cloud Service Provider):

While cloud migration can offerenhanced security, it contradicts thelow latency requirementfor medical devices.

Transferring sensitive healthcare data to the cloud might introducelatency issuesand compromiseavailability.

D. Install FIM (File Integrity Monitoring) on the application server:

FIM primarily addressesintegrityby detecting changes in files but doesnot protect confidentiality.

Monitoring changes to filesdoes not encrypt or secure data at rest.

Best Practice:

In healthcare environments wherePII and medical data are stored locally, always implementencryption at restto ensure data remainsprotected and confidential.

TheHIPAAregulation also mandates encryption for protectingelectronic protected health information (ePHI), reinforcing the need for this step.

Extract from CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Study Guide:

TheCompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guideemphasizes that whenconfidentialityis the highest priority,data encryption at restis essential for protectingsensitive information. In healthcare environments wherePII and medical data are involved, encryption is anon-negotiable requirementto meet compliance standards.

A next-generation firewall (NGFW) is a device or software that provides advanced network security features beyond the traditional firewall functions. A NGFW can provide the following capabilities:

Recognize and block fake websites, using URL filtering and reputation-based analysis

Decrypt and scan encrypted traffic on standard and non-standard ports, using SSL/TLS inspection and deep packet inspection

Use multiple engines for detection and prevention, such as antivirus, intrusion prevention system (IPS), application control, and sandboxing

Have central reporting, using a unified management console and dashboard A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a device or software that acts as an intermediary between cloud service users and cloud service providers. A CASB can provide various security functions such as visibility, compliance, data security, and threat protection, but it does not provide all the capabilities of a NGFW. Web filtering is a technique that blocks or allows web access based on predefined criteria such as categories, keywords, or reputation. Web filtering can help recognize and block fake websites, but it does not provide all the capabilities of a NGFW. Endpoint detection and response (EDR) is a technology that monitors and analyzes the activity and behavior of endpoints such as computers or mobile devices. EDR can help detect and respond to advanced threats, but it does not provide all the capabilities of a NGFW. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.2: Select appropriate hardware and software solutions

Full Disk Encryption ensures that the data on the laptop is encrypted at rest, preventing unauthorized access even if the device is stolen and its hard drive accessed externally. This aligns with CASP+ objective 3.5, which emphasizes implementing encryption to protect sensitive data against theft and compromise.