CS0-003 CompTIA CyberSecurity Analyst CySA+ Certification Exam Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

Phishing attacks arebest mitigated through user education and training. The50% reduction in phishing attemptssuggests a strongawareness programthat improved employee vigilance​.

Option A (Patching)helps prevent exploits but does notdirectly reduce phishing attempts.

Option B (Configuration management)ensures proper system setup but does notaddress phishing prevention.

Option D (Threat modeling)is useful for security planning but does notactively reduce phishing attempts.

Thus,C is the correct answer, asawareness training significantly decreases phishing success rates by educating employees on email-based threats​.

Agent-based scanning is a method that involves installing software agents on the target systems or networks that can perform local scans and report the results to a central server or console. Agent-based scanning can reduce the access to systems, as the agents do not require any credentials or permissions to scan the local system or network. Agent-based scanning can also provide the most accurate vulnerability scan results, as the agents can scan continuously or on-demand, regardless of the system or network status or location.

The MITRE ATT&CK framework is widely used for tracking and categorizing Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) of adversaries. TTPs help analysts understand the behaviors and methods attackers employ during incidents, making this framework particularly useful in SIEM dashboards for correlating and identifying threats. While the other options (OSSTMM, Diamond Model, OWASP) offer various security methodologies, MITRE ATT&CK is specifically focused on documenting adversary behaviors, making it the best fit here. CompTIA CySA+ often emphasizes MITRE ATT&CK for mapping and understanding threat behaviors in incident response.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:The command output shown indicates that the analyst used a TCP connection test to check if communication on port 443 (usually HTTPS) succeeded. Here’s why each option was or was not suitable:

A. nmap: While nmap can scan ports, it does not provide direct feedback on connection success or failure in the manner shown.

B. tnc (Test-NetConnection in PowerShell): This command in PowerShell is specifically designed to test connectivity to a specified port and IP address. The output (TcpTestSucceeded: False) is characteristic of the tnc command.

C. ping: The ping command only tests ICMP echo replies and does not indicate success or failure on specific ports.

D. tracert: tracert traces the path packets take to reach a host but does not provide a direct indication of port availability or success.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:Non-persistent virtual desktop infrastructures (VDIs) are the most suitable choice to ensure consistent security across different locations. Non-persistent VDIs revert to their original state after a session, reducing the risk of data leakage or malware persistence. These systems are centrally managed, ensuring uniform security policies regardless of the user's location.

When prioritizing vulnerabilities, analysts consider theCVSS score, whether the system isinternet-facing, and ifsensitive datais involved. The primary goal is to mitigate the mostexploitableandimpactfulrisks first.

Let's break down the key components:

Attack Vector (AV): Whether the attack can be launched remotely (N = Network) or locally (L = Local).

Attack Complexity (AC): The difficulty of executing the attack (L = Low, H = High).

Privileges Required (PR): The level of access needed for exploitation (N = None, L = Low, H = High).

User Interaction (UI): Whether user interaction is required for the attack (N = No, R = Required).

Scope (S): Whether the attack affects other systems (C = Changed, U = Unchanged).

Confidentiality (C), Integrity (I), Availability (A): The impact level (H = High, L = Low, N = None).

Evaluating Each System:

System 1 (CVSS: AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H)

Internet-facing✅

No sensitive data❌

High confidentiality and availability impact✅

Moderate risk due to requiring low privileges

System 2 (CVSS: AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H)

Not internet-facing❌

No sensitive data❌

Lower priority since it’s local-only

System 3 (CVSS: AV:P/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:N/I:N/A:L)

Internet-facing✅

Contains sensitive data✅

But very low likelihood of exploit (requires physical access, high privileges, user interaction)

Lower priority due to high attack complexity

System 4 (CVSS: AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:C/C:H/I:L/A:H)

Internet-facing✅

No sensitive data❌

No privileges required for exploitation✅

High impact on confidentiality and availability✅

Most critical due to remote exploitability and system-wide scope

System 5 (CVSS: AV:L/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:N)

Internet-facing✅

Contains sensitive data✅

But requires high privileges, high attack complexity, and user interaction

Lower priority than System 4

System 6 (CVSS: AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H)

Not internet-facing❌

No sensitive data❌

Same as System 2 (low priority due to being local-only)

Final Decision: Patch System 4 First

System 4 is themost criticalbecause:

It isinternet-facing(higher exposure).

It has ahigh CVSS score.

Itrequires no privileges(easy to exploit).

It hassystem-wide scope impact(can affect other systems).

Thus, it should bepatched firstto minimize security risks.

Host03 should be patched first, based on the metrics, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of critical vulnerabilities. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Host03 has a risk score of 10 x 0.9 = 9, which is higher than any other host. Host03 also has 5 critical vulnerabilities, which are the most severe and urgent to fix, as they can allow remote code execution, privilege escalation, or data loss. The other hosts have lower risk scores and lower numbers of critical vulnerabilities, so they can be patched later.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Vulnerability management reporting and communication focuses on giving stakeholders the information they need to prioritize, assign, track, and complete remediation. That typically includes:

Risk severity / risk score (to prioritize and communicate urgency)

Timelines (when fixes are due, often tied to SLOs/SLAs and internal targets)

Dependencies (what must happen first or what systems/teams a fix relies on)

Remediation ownership / responsible parties (who is accountable for fixing each item)

This maps directly to Option D.

Exact extract (CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Exam Objectives – Vulnerability management reporting):

Vulnerability management reporting includes “Risk score … [and] Prioritization.”

Exact extract (Secbay Press – Key components of action plans used for reporting/communication):

“Timeline and Prioritization: Specify timelines for addressing each vulnerability…”

“Responsible Parties: Clearly identify individuals or teams responsible…”

“Communication Strategy: Outline how the organization will communicate progress…”

These are the same practical reporting/communication items expressed in Option D:

“Risk severity levels” ↔ risk score / severity used for prioritization

“Timelines” ↔ timeline definition in action plans

“Remediation ownership” ↔ responsible parties/accountability

“Dependencies” are commonly tracked because they affect timelines and ownership (for example, engineering/ops sequencing and prerequisite changes), and they align with the objective’s focus on prioritization/action planning and stakeholder communication.

Why the other options are not the best match:

A includes items that are valuable inputs to prioritization (risk assessment, BIA), but vulnerability reporting/communication (per objectives) is centered on reporting vulnerabilities, affected hosts, risk scoring, mitigations, recurrence, prioritization, and action plans, not BCPs as core reporting factors.

B mixes relevant items (MTTR, dependencies) with disaster recovery plans, which are DR/BC-focused rather than core vulnerability reporting elements.

C includes several incident response / SOC monitoring metrics (alert volume characteristics, MTTD) that are not the primary focus of vulnerability management reporting (even though false positives can be tracked as a VM metric, the overall set is misaligned).

References (CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 documents / study guides used):

CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Exam Objectives v4.0: vulnerability management reporting includes risk score and prioritization; action plans and stakeholder communication

Secbay Press, CompTIA CySA+ Exam Prep Guide (CS0-003): action plan components include timelines, responsible parties (ownership), and communication strategy

SQL injection is a type of attack that injects malicious SQL statements into a web application’s input fields or parameters, in order to manipulate or access the underlying database. The request shown in the image contains an SQL injection attempt, as indicated by the “UNION SELECT” statement, which is used to combine the results of two or more queries. The attacker is trying to extract information from the database by appending the malicious query to the original one

An SLA, or Service Level Agreement, is a contract between a service provider and its customers that documents what services the provider will furnish and defines the service standards the provider is obligated to meet. In the scenario described, the missed incident response deadline is a clear indicator of an SLA violation. An SLA usually outlines the metrics by which service is measured as well as remedies or penalties should agreed-upon service levels not be achieved. Unlike a KPI (Key Performance Indicator) which is a quantifiable measure used to evaluate the success of an organization, employee, etc., in meeting objectives for performance, or an MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) which is a formal agreement between two or more parties, an SLA is focused on the performance and quality metrics applicable to the service provided. SLO (Service Level Objective) is related and often part of an SLA, representing the specific measurable characteristics of the SLA such as availability, throughput, frequency, response time, or quality.

Webhooksenable automatic and event-driven interactions between applications. In the context of code repositories and vulnerability scanning, webhooksautomate the scanning processevery time new code is committed. Thisensures continuous security coveragewithout relying on manual triggers, thereby embedding security checks into the development lifecycle efficiently. This automation leads to improved coverage and faster identification of vulnerabilities at the earliest stage possible in the DevSecOps pipeline.

In this scenario, the security analyst is presented with multiple vulnerabilities, including a critical zero-day vulnerability affecting the web server with a CVSS score of 10. The CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) provides a standardized method for rating IT vulnerabilities, with a score of 10 indicating the highest severity.

Option A:Contact the web systems administrator and request that they shut down the asset.

Correct Choice:Given the critical nature of a zero-day vulnerability with a CVSS score of 10, immediate action is warranted to prevent potential exploitation. Shutting down the affected web server reduces the attack surface and mitigates the risk until a patch or workaround is available. This aligns with incident response best practices, where containment is a priority to prevent further damage.

Option B:Monitor the patch releases for all items and escalate patching to the appropriate team.

Incorrect Choice:While monitoring for patches is essential, it is a reactive approach. In the case of a zero-day vulnerability with active exploitation potential, waiting for a patch without implementing immediate protective measures exposes the organization to significant risk.

Option C:Run the vulnerability scan again to verify the presence of the critical finding and the zero-day vulnerability in the environment.

Incorrect Choice:Re-scanning may confirm the vulnerability's presence but does not address the immediate threat. Action to mitigate the risk should take precedence over verification, especially when the vulnerability is known and critical.

Option D:Forward the advisory to the web security team and initiate the prioritization strategy for the other vulnerabilities.

Incorrect Choice:Communicating with the web security team is important; however, in the face of a critical zero-day vulnerability, immediate action (such as shutting down the affected asset) is necessary before addressing other vulnerabilities.

Port 3389 is commonly used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), which is a service that allows remote access to a system. A vulnerability on this port could allow an attacker to compromise the web server or use it as a pivot point to access other systems. However, if the firewall blocks this port, the risk of exploitation is reduced.

A risk register typically contains details like ID, name, description, classification of information, and responsible party. It’s used for tracking identified risks and managing them.Recording details like ID, Name, Description, Classification of information, and Responsible party is typically done in a Risk Register. This document is used to identify, assess, manage, and monitor risks within an organization. It's not directly related to incident response or change control documentation.

Mitigate is the best term to describe the risk management principle that the company is exercising, as it means to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk. By implementing a patch management program to remediate vulnerabilities, the company is mitigating the threat of cyberattacks that could exploit those vulnerabilities and compromise the security or functionality of the systems. The other terms are not as accurate as mitigate, as they describe different risk management principles. Transfer means to shift theresponsibility or burden of a risk to another party, such as an insurer or a contractor. Accept means to acknowledge the existence of a risk and decide not to take any action to reduce it, usually because the risk is low or the cost of mitigation is too high. Avoid means to eliminate the possibility of a risk by changing the plans or activities that could cause it, such as cancelling a project or discontinuing a service.

Searching for other mail users who have received the same file is the best activity to perform next, as it helps to identify and contain the scope of the ransomware attack and prevent further damage. Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts files on a system and demands payment for their decryption. Ransomware can spread through phishing emails that contain malicious attachments or links that download the ransomware. By searching for other mail users who have received the same file, the analyst can alert them not to open it, delete it from their inboxes, and scan their systems for any signs of infection. The other activities are not as urgent or effective as searching for other mail users who have received the same file, as they do not address the immediate threat of ransomware spreading or affecting more systems. Wiping the computer and reinstalling software may restore the functionality of the affected workstation, but it will also erase any evidence of the ransomware attack and make recovery of encrypted files impossible. Shutting down the email server and quarantining it from the network may stop the delivery of more phishing emails, but it will also disrupt normal communication and operations for the organization. Acquiring a bit-level image of the affected workstation may preserve the evidence of the ransomware attack, but it will not help to stop or remove the ransomware or decrypt the files.

Implementing a central place to manage IT assets is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure. A central place to manage IT assets, such as a configuration management database (CMDB), can help the vulnerability assessment team to have an accurate and up-to-date inventory of all the hardware and software components in the network, as well as their relationships and dependencies. A CMDB can also track the changes and updates made to the IT assets, and provide a single source of truth for the vulnerability assessment team and other teams to compare and verify the versions and patches of the infrastructure12. Implementing credentialed scanning, changing from a passive to an active scanning approach, and performing agentless scanning are all methods to improve the vulnerability scanning process, but they do not address the root cause of the inconsistencies, which is the lack of a central place to manage IT assets3. References: What is a Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?, How to Use a CMDB to Improve Vulnerability Management, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices

The string provided ispercent-encoded text, commonly used toobfuscate URLs. When decoded, it translates towww.ice-ptic.com. Such encoding is used tobypass email security filtersandspam detectors, making the malicious link appear as benign or unreadable to the automated scanners.

Option Ais incorrect: The string does not match JavaScript shellcode formats.

Option CandDare unlikely and unrelated to the actual behavior.

?Reference:

CySA+ All-in-One Exam Guide by Mya Heath– Chapter 4, Obfuscated Links

CompTIA Exam Objectives: 1.2 – Indicators of Malicious Activity

The error indicates the application (running under w3wp.exe, the IIS worker process) crashed/stopped working. To identify the application’s point of failure, you need a debugger that can perform dynamic analysis—setting breakpoints, stepping through execution, inspecting memory/stack/registers, and/or analyzing a crash dump/core dump to pinpoint where the failure occurred.

The CySA+ All-in-One guide describes exactly how a debugger is used to analyze a crash and determine the program’s state at the time of failure:

Exact extract (All-in-One Exam Guide):

“Using a debugger, you can load the core dump file and examine the program’s state at the time of the crash…”

It then explains that debuggers (including Immunity) are used for dynamic analysis by stepping through code and examining runtime behavior:

Exact extract (All-in-One Exam Guide):

“Immunity… offers… features… valuable for security analysts… Security analysts can leverage Immunity to set breakpoints, step through code, and monitor the execution flow of a program… allowing analysts to… uncover critical security information.”

The Sybex CySA+ Study Guide reinforces that debuggers are used for dynamic analysis of executables and explicitly lists Immunity Debugger as a key tool:

Exact extract (Sybex Study Guide):

“Debuggers… allow testers to perform dynamic analysis of executable files… Immunity debugger is designed specifically to support penetration testing and the reverse engineering of malware.”

Also, the official CompTIA CS0-003 objectives list Immunity Debugger under tools used to analyze output from vulnerability assessment tools (debuggers category), confirming it as an expected exam-relevant tool choice:

Exact extract (CompTIA CS0-003 Objectives):

“Debuggers: Immunity debugger, GNU debugger (GDB)”

Why the other options are wrong

A. OpenVAS is an infrastructure vulnerability scanner, not a crash/failure debugger.

B. Angry IP Scanner is a network scanning/mapping tool for IPs/ports, not application crash analysis.

D. Burp Suite is a web application testing/proxy tool (great for analyzing HTTP requests, auth, app logic flaws), but it does not directly pinpoint a process crash point like a debugger can.

References (CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 documents / study guides used):

Mya Heath et al., CompTIA CySA+ All-in-One Exam Guide (CS0-003): debuggers analyze crash/core dump state; Immunity Debugger supports breakpoints/stepping/execution monitoring

Mike Chapple & David Seidl, CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide (CS0-003): debuggers support dynamic analysis; Immunity debugger noted as a key debugger tool

CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Exam Objectives v4.0: lists “Immunity debugger” under debugger tools