SIE FINRA Securities Industry Essentials Exam (SIE) Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

A covered call involves selling a call option on a stock the investor already owns. The strategy generates income in the form of the premium collected for selling the call, providing additional returns on the stock position.

D is correctbecause the primary goal of a covered call is to generate income.

Ais incorrect because covered calls do not hedge against large declines in the stock price.

Bis incorrect because speculation involves taking higher risks, not a covered call’s conservative strategy.

Cis incorrect because no strategy guarantees a profit.

Refunding involves replacing existing debt with new debt, usually to take advantage of lower interest rates.

B is correctbecause the company issues new bonds to pay off the existing debt.

Ais incorrect as refunding involves issuing debt, not equity.

Cis incorrect because the company is not obligated to buy back bonds at a discount.

Dis incorrect because a sinking fund is used for gradual repayment, not refunding.

Step by Step Explanation:

Reverse Split Calculation: A 1-for-2 reverse split reduces the number of shares by half while doubling the price per share.

Pre-Split Holdings: 100 shares at $5.00 = $500.

Post-Split Holdings: 50 shares at $10.00 = $500.

Incorrect Options: The total value remains unchanged; only the number of shares and price per share adjust.

References:

FINRA Corporate Actions Guidance: FINRA Reverse Splits.

A pass-through entity does not pay corporate income taxes; instead, income is passed to owners, who report it on their individual tax returns.

A is correctbecause C corporations are not pass-through entities; they pay corporate taxes.

B,C, andDare all pass-through entities for tax purposes.

529 savings plans are state-sponsored education savings accounts that offer tax-advantaged growth. Key features include:

Contributions are not federally tax deductible (some states offer state-level deductions).

No income limitations for contributions.

The account owner, not the beneficiary, controls the plan.

Assets can be transferred tax-free to another family member’s 529 plan.

D is correctbecause tax-free rollovers are allowed for family members of the current beneficiary.

Ais incorrect as contributions are not universally tax deductible.

Bis incorrect as there are no income limitations for contributing.

Cis incorrect because the account owner, not the beneficiary, controls the assets.

Step by Step Explanation:

Temporary Hold Period: Under FINRA Rule 2165, a firm can initially place a hold on disbursements for up to 10 business days if financial exploitation is suspected.

Additional Holds: The period may be extended by an additional 10 business days if warranted and allowed by state law.

Incorrect Options:

A & B: These are shorter than the permissible period.

D: The initial hold period is capped at 10 business days.

References:

FINRA Rule 2165 (Financial Exploitation of Specified Adults): FINRA Rule 2165.

Step by Step Explanation:

Cost Basis in Reverse Split: The total cost basis remains unchanged in a reverse stock split. Only the number of shares and price per share adjust.

Pre-Split: 1,000 shares at $5 each = $5,000.

Post-Split: 200 shares at $25 each = $5,000.

Incorrect Options:

A, B, and D: Do not reflect the unchanged total cost basis.

References:

IRS Guidance on Stock Splits: IRS Stock Split Info.

Step by Step Explanation:

Penny Stocks: These are low-priced, highly speculative stocks often issued by small or distressed companies. They generally have low liquidity, meaning they can be difficult to buy or sell without significantly impacting the price.

Incorrect Options:

Dividends: Penny stocks rarely pay dividends, unlike blue-chip stocks.

Price Stability: Penny stocks are highly volatile compared to blue-chip stocks.

Capitalization: Blue-chip companies are far better capitalized.

References:

SEC Bulletin on Penny Stocks: SEC Penny Stocks.

Step by Step Explanation:

Call Option Writer: When writing (selling) a call option, the writer has the obligation to sell the underlying stock at the strike price if the buyer exercises the option.

Incorrect Options:

A & B: Only the option buyer has rights, not the writer.

D: Obligations to buy stock apply to put option writers, not call option writers.

References:

Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) Options Education:OCC Options Education.

Currency devaluation reduces the value of a country’s currency relative to others, making its exports cheaper and more competitive internationally. This stimulates demand for the country’s goods and services.

D is correctbecause devaluation reduces export costs, encouraging foreign buyers.

Ais incorrect because devaluation can increase inflation by raising the cost of imported goods.

Bis incorrect because GDP often rises due to increased export demand.

Cis incorrect because imports become more expensive after devaluation, reducing demand.

Step by Step Explanation:

Inverse Relationship: Bond prices and interest rates have an inverse relationship. When interest rates fall, existing bonds with higher coupon rates become more valuable, leading to an increase in market value.

Incorrect Options:

A: Market value decreases as interest rates increase.

C: Interest rates and bond values move inversely, not in the same direction.

D: Interest rates are not constant; they fluctuate over time.

References:

SEC Municipal Bonds Overview: SEC Municipal Bonds.

The Securities Act of 1933 requires securities offered to the public to be registered with the SEC unless they qualify for an exemption. Open-end investment companies (mutual funds) are not exempt and must register.

D is correctbecause mutual funds are publicly offered and require registration.

Ais incorrect because private placements are exempt under Regulation D.

Bis incorrect because municipal securities are exempt under Section 3(a)(2).

Cis incorrect because U.S. government securities are also exempt under Section 3(a)(2).

Coverdell Education Savings Accounts (ESAs) require that all funds be distributed by the time the beneficiary reaches 30 years old. If the funds are not used for qualified educational expenses, they may be subject to taxes and penalties.

B is correctbecause funds must be distributed by age 30 unless transferred to another eligible family member.

Ais incorrect as age 21 is not relevant for Coverdell ESAs.

Cis incorrect because age 59 ½ applies to retirement accounts like IRAs.

Dis incorrect because there is a distribution deadline for Coverdell accounts.

Federal Reserve Regulation T mandates that customers must pay for purchases in a cash account within two business days of settlement (T+4). If payment is not made, the brokerage firm must liquidate the securities and place the account on a 90-day restriction.

C is correctbecause the customer’s account is frozen for 90 days, during which all trades must be paid for in advance.

Ais incorrect as closing transactions are still permitted but require prepayment.

Bis incorrect because the restriction lasts for 90 days, not 30.

Dis incorrect as only the delinquent account, not related accounts, is frozen.

Step by Step Explanation:

Tender Offer Definition: A tender offer is an offer to purchase a certain number of shares from shareholders, typically at a price above the current market value. This is often part of mergers, acquisitions, or corporate takeovers.

Stock Split: A stock split increases the number of shares but decreases the price per share without affecting the total value of an investor's holdings.

Redemption: Redemption refers to the repayment of a bond or preferred stock at maturity or at a predetermined date.

Class Action: A class action is a lawsuit filed by a group of people with similar grievances.

References:

SEC Rule 14e on tender offers: SEC Tender Offers.

Step by Step Explanation:

Open-End Mutual Funds: Shares are purchased directly from the fund or its underwriter at the current Net Asset Value (NAV), plus any applicable sales charges.

Custodian: Holds the fund's assets but does not sell shares.

NYSE and Shareholders: Open-end funds do not trade on exchanges or between individual shareholders.

References:

SEC Mutual Fund Basics: SEC Mutual Funds.

American Depositary Receipts (ADRs) allow U.S. investors to efficiently invest in foreign corporations without the need to trade on foreign exchanges. ADRs are traded on U.S. exchanges and represent shares of foreign companies.

D is correctbecause ADRs are designed for this purpose, simplifying currency exchange and reporting requirements for U.S. investors.

Ais incorrect because directly purchasing an ETF on a foreign exchange requires additional steps, such as foreign account setup.

Bis incorrect because options are derivative products, not direct investments in the stock.

Cis less efficient because mutual funds may not provide direct exposure to the specific corporation.

During the "quiet period" after filing the registration statement, issuers are restricted in what they can communicate to the public to avoid influencing the market.

C is correctbecause promotional statements, such as those supporting the company’s valuation, are prohibited during this time.

A,B, andDare factual, non-promotional statements and are permitted.

The Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) is responsible for issuing and guaranteeing the performance of listed options contracts, including Long-term Equity Anticipation Securities (LEAPS), which are long-term options.

D is correctbecause LEAPS are a type of listed options contract cleared by the OCC.

Ais incorrect because listed stocks are not options contracts.

Bis incorrect because over-the-counter bonds are not cleared by the OCC.

Cis incorrect because ETFs are not options, though ETF options may be cleared by the OCC.