CFM IFMA Certified Facility Manager Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Governance focuses on guiding (Option A) through policies, oversight, and compliance within an organization.

Why Option A is Correct?

Governance involves setting policies, monitoring compliance, and providing strategic direction.

FM leaders play a governance role by guiding teams and ensuring facility operations comply with regulations and organizational goals.

IFMA’s Leadership & Strategy competency emphasizes strong governance in facility management operations.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?

Option B (Execute): Execution refers to operational tasks, not governance.

Option C (Plan): Planning is a function of governance, but guiding involves overseeing the entire process.

Since the shopping center’s exterior design was pre-approved by the local planning board, modifications cannot be made without compliance (Option A).

Why Option A is Correct?

The master plan ensures aesthetic and architectural uniformity for the shopping center.

The tenant’s request violates the approved design standards and would need official planning approval.

IFMA’s Real Estate & Property Management Core Competency emphasizes that FM professionals must enforce lease terms and municipal zoning requirements.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?

Option B: Even if an architect designs modifications, they must still conform to the master plan.

Option C: The tenant cannot make modifications simply by funding them; approval is required.

Coaching on recognition of business needs (D) ensures that creativity aligns with practical and customer-focused solutions.

Why is this the best choice?

Encourages innovation while ensuring solutions meet organizational goals.

Why not other options?

(A) Customer feedback is useful but does not guide the employee proactively.

(B) Quality training is beneficial but does not directly address the misalignment issue.

(C) Reviewing solutions in advance can be time-consuming and does not develop the employee’s decision-making skills.

The economic life of an asset is the period during which it remains cost-effective to operate and maintain, minimizing total ownership costs.

Economic life (D) is determined by evaluating operating expenses, maintenance costs, depreciation, and efficiency. At this stage, the asset provides maximum value before its costs exceed its benefits.

Ownership life (A) refers to the entire period of possession, which may extend beyond its optimal cost-effective period.

Useful life (B) is the estimated time an asset can be functionally used, but this does not always align with cost efficiency.

End of life (C) marks when an asset is no longer usable, often requiring costly disposal or replacement.

Fire doors should never be propped open (Option B) unless they have an automatic closing mechanism tied to the fire alarm system.

Why Option B is Correct?

Fire doors are designed to contain fires and prevent smoke from spreading.

Propping open fire doors compromises building safety and violates fire codes (NFPA 101 – Life Safety Code).

IFMA’s Emergency Preparedness & Business Continuity Core Competency highlights fire safety compliance as a critical FM responsibility.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?

Option A (Can be propped open during the day): Fire doors must remain closed unless controlled by an approved automatic release mechanism.

Option C (Need to be locked when not in use): Fire doors should not be locked in a way that prevents emergency egress.

A comprehensive security program consists of personnel, physical devices, and procedures (D).

Personnel: Security staff, employees trained in safety protocols.

Physical devices: Cameras, alarms, access control.

Procedures: Policies, response plans, emergency drills.

Why not other options?

(A) Law enforcement is external, not an internal part of the security program.

(B) Similar issue—law enforcement is not directly managed by facilities.

(C) Executive management engagement is important but not a core security element.

Quality in a facility is ultimately defined by the customer (D). While facility managers and service providers establish service standards and operational efficiencies, the end-users’ experience and satisfaction levels dictate whether a facility is meeting quality expectations.

IFMA Core Competency: Performance and Quality Management emphasizes that facility managers must align facility operations with customer expectations to ensure service excellence.

ISO 41001 and EN 15221-3 standards highlight that quality should be measured based on customer feedback, performance metrics, and compliance with service level agreements (SLAs).

Facility Manager’s Role (A): Responsible for implementing and managing quality programs but does not independently define quality.

Service Contract Provider’s Role (B): Ensures service delivery but follows predefined standards.

Facility Team’s Role (C): Supports quality initiatives but does not solely determine the standard of quality.

Effective communication (Option C) ensures that messages are understood, acted upon, and lead to the intended outcome.

The Tuckman model of team development includes five key stages: Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning​.

Option D (Performing) is correct because it represents the phase where teams work efficiently and effectively toward goals.

Option A (Adjourning) is the final stage, not the fourth.

Options B (Completing) and C (Reporting) are not part of the official Tuckman model.

At the Performing stage, teams function independently, solve problems efficiently, and maintain high productivity​.

A punch-list walk-through (Option A) is conducted to identify deficiencies that the contractor must correct before the final payment is released.

Why Option A is Correct?

The punch list documents defects, unfinished work, and any items that do not meet contract specifications.

Contractors must address these issues before the facility manager or owner approves the project for final acceptance.

IFMA’s Project Management Core Competency emphasizes quality control during construction closeout to ensure compliance with project requirements.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?

Option B (Ensure the construction site is free from debris): Site cleanliness is important but is not the primary purpose of a punch-list walk-through.

Option C (Walk through the project to discover what needs to be completed): This is part of general project inspections, but a punch-list walk-through is a formal process focused on contract compliance.

Performing independent audits (Option B) ensures financial transparency, accountability, and compliance with industry standards.

Why Option B is Correct?

Internal or external audits verify accuracy, compliance, and identify errors.

Maintains credibility and trust with tenants.

IFMA’s Finance & Business Core Competency highlights audits as a best practice in lease accounting.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?

Option A: Internal checks help but do not provide independent verification.

Option C: Having a tenant’s accountant review internal records creates a conflict of interest.

The Strategic Plan aligns real estate decisions with long-term business objectives, ensuring that space planning, lease agreements, and facility investments support organizational goals. It considers:

Growth projections and space needs.

Cost-benefit analysis of owning vs. leasing.

Sustainability and energy efficiency.

While budget (A), leasing analysis (C), and capital investment strategy (D) provide valuable insights, they do not encompass the broader strategic alignment required for master planning​.

The Best and Highest Use principle in real estate valuation requires passing four tests:

Physically Possible – The land or building must accommodate the intended use.

Legally Permissible – Must comply with zoning, environmental laws, and regulations.

Financially Feasible – Must generate enough income or benefits to justify the investment.

Maximally Productive – Must provide the highest return compared to other uses.

While strategic planning (A, C) and location (D) are important considerations, they do not meet all four criteria required for determining best and highest use​.

Knowing an employee's strengths (B) is the most effective way to delegate tasks efficiently and ensure productivity.

Effective delegation involves:

Assigning tasks based on competencies

Maximizing productivity and efficiency

Supporting employee development

Why not other options?

(A) Work style may vary but does not define capability.

(C) Accomplishments reflect past performance, not current ability.

(D) Preferences are important but should not override role suitability.

Six Sigma is a widely recognized industry-standard quality program that focuses on:

Reducing defects and inefficiencies.

Improving process control and consistency.

Enhancing customer satisfaction through data-driven decision-making.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) CMMS Reports track maintenance tasks but are not a formal quality program.

(B) Facility benchmarks provide performance comparisons but do not define a structured quality program.

(D) Certified Maintenance and Reliability Reports focus on equipment reliability, not overall quality improvement​.

The Operations and Maintenance competency in IFMA highlights that an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) is the best solution for maintaining power stability.

UPS (C) provides instant backup power to prevent system downtime.

Load shedding (A) reduces power demand but does not provide emergency power.

Redundant PoE switches (B) protect against switch failure but not power outages.

Capacity management (D) ensures proper distribution but does not prevent outages.

By installing a UPS, facility managers can protect critical IT infrastructure from power surges, spikes, and outages.

Lockout/Tagout (LOTO) procedures are designed to prevent accidental energy release during maintenance. A LOTO procedure is complete when:

The equipment is fully isolated from energy sources.

Locks and tags are placed on the isolation points.

All required documentation and records are completed.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Developing a written program is essential but does not complete the process.

(B) Simply securing a cable is not enough for full isolation.

(C) Training is required, but execution and documentation finalize the procedure​.

A proper risk assessment and plan (A) requires:

Identifying risks – Recognizing potential threats.

Assessing probability and severity – Evaluating impact likelihood.

Developing contingency plans – Creating strategies to mitigate identified risks.

Stakeholder communication (B) is important but does not constitute a complete risk plan.

Adding extra time (C) does not directly address risk sources.

Project tools (D) help manage risk but do not replace systematic risk analysis.

Hazardous materials such as asbestos, lead paint, and airborne contaminants must be addressed before renovation. The IFMA Environmental Stewardship and Sustainability competency highlights the importance of hazardous materials management and regulatory compliance​.

Option C is correct because older buildings often contain asbestos, lead-based paint, or other hazardous substances that require special handling and removal procedures.

Option A (Licensed Architect Review) is essential but does not address environmental hazards.

Option B (Salvage Company) is not required unless hazardous materials must be safely removed.

Option D (Water and Sewer Compliance) is relevant but not the primary concern in facility renovation.

Proper hazardous materials assessment ensures regulatory compliance, worker safety, and environmental protection​.