CISSP ISC Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)
Prepare effectively for your ISC CISSP Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction?
Lack of software documentation
License agreements requiring release of modified code
Expiration of the license agreement
Costs associated with support of the software
The Answer Is:
BExplanation:
The primary risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction is license agreements requiring release of modified code. Open source software is software that uses publicly available source code, which can be seen, modified, and distributed by anyone. Open source software has some advantages, such as being affordable and flexible, but it also has some disadvantages, such as being potentially insecure or unsupported.
One of the main disadvantages of using open source software in a commercial software construction is the license agreements that govern the use and distribution of the open source software. License agreements are legal contracts that specify the rights and obligations of the parties involved in the software, such as the original authors, the developers, and the users. License agreements can vary in terms of their terms and conditions, such as the scope, the duration, or the fees of the software.
Some of the common types of license agreements for open source software are:
Permissive licenses: license agreements that allow the developers and users to freely use, modify, and distribute the open source software, with minimal or no restrictions. Examples of permissive licenses are the MIT License, the Apache License, or the BSD License.
Copyleft licenses: license agreements that require the developers and users to share and distribute the open source software and any modifications or derivatives of it, under the same or compatible license terms and conditions. Examples of copyleft licenses are the GNU General Public License (GPL), the GNU Lesser General Public License (LGPL), or the Mozilla Public License (MPL).
Mixed licenses: license agreements that combine the elements of permissive and copyleft licenses, and may apply different license terms and conditions to different parts or components of the open source software. Examples of mixed licenses are the Eclipse Public License (EPL), the Common Development and Distribution License (CDDL), or the GNU Affero General Public License (AGPL).
The primary risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction is license agreements requiring release of modified code, which are usually associated with copyleft licenses. This means that if a commercial software construction uses or incorporates open source software that is licensed under a copyleft license, then it must also release its own source code and any modifications or derivatives of it, under the same or compatible copyleft license. This can pose a significant risk for the commercial software construction, as it may lose its competitive advantage, intellectual property, or revenue, by disclosing its source code and allowing others to use, modify, or distribute it.
The other options are not the primary risks with using open source software in a commercial software construction, but rather secondary or minor risks that may or may not apply to the open source software. Lack of software documentation is a secondary risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction, as it may affect the quality, usability, or maintainability of the open source software, but it does not necessarily affect the rights or obligations of the commercial software construction. Expiration of the license agreement is a minor risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction, as it may affect the availability or continuity of the open source software, but it is unlikely to happen, as most open source software licenses are perpetual or indefinite. Costs associated with support of the software is a secondary risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction, as it may affect the reliability, security, or performance of the open source software, but it can be mitigated or avoided by choosing the open source software that has adequate or alternative support options.
A Java program is being developed to read a file from computer A and write it to computer B, using a third computer C. The program is not working as expected. What is the MOST probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended?
Least privilege
Privilege escalation
Defense in depth
Privilege bracketing
The Answer Is:
AExplanation:
The most probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended is least privilege. Least privilege is a principle that states that a subject (such as a user, a process, or a program) should only have the minimum amount of access or permissions that are necessary to perform its function or task. Least privilege can help to reduce the attack surface and the potential damage of a system or network, by limiting the exposure and impact of a subject in case of a compromise or misuse.
Java implements the principle of least privilege through its security model, which consists of several components, such as:
The Java Virtual Machine (JVM): a software layer that executes the Java bytecode and provides an abstraction from the underlying hardware and operating system. The JVM enforces the security rules and restrictions on the Java programs, such as the memory protection, the bytecode verification, and the exception handling.
The Java Security Manager: a class that defines and controls the security policy and permissions for the Java programs. The Java Security Manager can be configured and customized by the system administrator or the user, and can grant or deny the access or actions of the Java programs, such as the file I/O, the network communication, or the system properties.
The Java Security Policy: a file that specifies the security permissions for the Java programs, based on the code source and the code signer. The Java Security Policy can be defined and modified by the system administrator or the user, and can assign different levels of permissions to different Java programs, such as the trusted or the untrusted ones.
The Java Security Sandbox: a mechanism that isolates and restricts the Java programs that are downloaded or executed from untrusted sources, such as the web or the network. The Java Security Sandbox applies the default or the minimal security permissions to the untrusted Java programs, and prevents them from accessing or modifying the local resources or data, such as the files, the databases, or the registry.
In this question, the Java program is being developed to read a file from computer A and write it to computer B, using a third computer C. This means that the Java program needs to have the permissions to perform the file I/O and the network communication operations, which are considered as sensitive or risky actions by the Java security model. However, if the Java program is running on computer C with the default or the minimal security permissions, such as in the Java Security Sandbox, then it will not be able to perform these operations, and the program will not work as expected. Therefore, the most probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended is least privilege, which limits the access or permissions of the Java program based on its source, signer, or policy.
The other options are not the security features of Java preventing the program from operating as intended, but rather concepts or techniques that are related to security in general or in other contexts. Privilege escalation is a technique that allows a subject to gain higher or unauthorized access or permissions than what it is supposed to have, by exploiting a vulnerability or a flaw in a system or network. Privilege escalation can help an attacker to perform malicious actions or to access sensitive resources or data, by bypassing the security controls or restrictions. Defense in depth is a concept that states that a system or network should have multiple layers or levels of security, to provide redundancy and resilience in case of a breach or an attack. Defense in depth can help to protect a system or network from various threats and risks, by using different types of security measures and controls, such as the physical, the technical, or the administrative ones. Privilege bracketing is a technique that allows a subject to temporarily elevate or lower its access or permissions, to perform a specific function or task, and then return to its original or normal level. Privilege bracketing can help to reduce the exposure and impact of a subject, by minimizing the time and scope of its higher or lower access or permissions.
An organization has doubled in size due to a rapid market share increase. The size of the Information Technology (IT) staff has maintained pace with this growth. The organization hires several contractors whose onsite time is limited. The IT department has pushed its limits building servers and rolling out workstations and has a backlog of account management requests.
Which contract is BEST in offloading the task from the IT staff?
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Identity as a Service (IDaaS)
Desktop as a Service (DaaS)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
The Answer Is:
BExplanation:
Identity as a Service (IDaaS) is the best contract in offloading the task of account management from the IT staff. IDaaS is a cloud-based service that provides identity and access management (IAM) functions, such as user authentication, authorization, provisioning, deprovisioning, password management, single sign-on (SSO), and multifactor authentication (MFA). IDaaS can help the organization to streamline and automate the account management process, reduce the workload and costs of the IT staff, and improve the security and compliance of the user accounts. IDaaS can also support the contractors who have limited onsite time, as they can access the organization’s resources remotely and securely through the IDaaS provider.
The other options are not as effective as IDaaS in offloading the task of account management from the IT staff, as they do not provide IAM functions. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud-based service that provides a platform for developing, testing, and deploying applications, but it does not manage the user accounts for the applications. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) is a cloud-based service that provides virtual desktops for users to access applications and data, but it does not manage the user accounts for the virtual desktops. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud-based service that provides software applications for users to use, but it does not manage the user accounts for the software applications.
In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the
system security managers
business managers
Information Technology (IT) managers
end users
The Answer Is:
BExplanation:
In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the business managers. Business managers are the persons or entities that have the authority and accountability for the creation, collection, processing, and disposal of a set of data. Business managers are also responsible for defining the purpose, value, and classification of the data, as well as the security requirements and controls for the data. Business managers should be able to determine the impact the information has on the mission of the organization, which means assessing the potential consequences of losing, compromising, or disclosing the data. The impact of the information on the mission of the organization is one of the main criteria for data classification, which helps to establish the appropriate level of protection and handling for the data.
The other options are not the data owners in a data classification scheme, but rather the other roles or functions related to data management. System security managers are the persons or entities that oversee the security of the information systems and networks that store, process, and transmit the data. They are responsible for implementing and maintaining the technical and physical security of the data, as well as monitoring and auditing the security performance and incidents. Information Technology (IT) managers are the persons or entities that manage the IT resources and services that support the business processes and functions that use the data. They are responsible for ensuring the availability, reliability, and scalability of the IT infrastructure and applications, as well as providing technical support and guidance to the users and stakeholders. End users are the persons or entities that access and use the data for their legitimate purposes and needs. They are responsible for complying with the security policies and procedures for the data, as well as reporting any security issues or violations.
Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner?
Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity
Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving
Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security
Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
The best description of the responsibilities of a data owner is determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization. A data owner is a person or entity that has the authority and accountability for the creation, collection, processing, and disposal of a set of data. A data owner is also responsible for defining the purpose, value, and classification of the data, as well as the security requirements and controls for the data. A data owner should be able to determine the impact the information has on the mission of the organization, which means assessing the potential consequences of losing, compromising, or disclosing the data. The impact of the information on the mission of the organization is one of the main criteria for data classification, which helps to establish the appropriate level of protection and handling for the data.
The other options are not the best descriptions of the responsibilities of a data owner, but rather the responsibilities of other roles or functions related to data management. Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity is a responsibility of a data steward, who is a person or entity that oversees the quality, consistency, and usability of the data. Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving is a responsibility of a data custodian, who is a person or entity that implements and maintains the technical and physical security of the data. Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security is a responsibility of a data controller, who is a person or entity that determines the purposes and means of processing the data.
Which of the following is MOST important when assigning ownership of an asset to a department?
The department should report to the business owner
Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed
Individual accountability should be ensured
All members should be trained on their responsibilities
The Answer Is:
CExplanation:
When assigning ownership of an asset to a department, the most important factor is to ensure individual accountability for the asset. Individual accountability means that each person who has access to or uses the asset is responsible for its protection and proper handling. Individual accountability also implies that each person who causes or contributes to a security breach or incident involving the asset can be identified and held liable. Individual accountability can be achieved by implementing security controls such as authentication, authorization, auditing, and logging.
The other options are not as important as ensuring individual accountability, as they do not directly address the security risks associated with the asset. The department should report to the business owner is a management issue, not a security issue. Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed is a good practice, but it does not prevent misuse or abuse of the asset. All members should be trained on their responsibilities is a preventive measure, but it does not guarantee compliance or enforcement of the responsibilities.
Which one of the following affects the classification of data?
Assigned security label
Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture
Minimum query size
Passage of time
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
The passage of time is one of the factors that affects the classification of data. Data classification is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity or criticality to data based on its value, impact, and legal requirements. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and handling procedures for the data. However, data classification is not static, but dynamic, meaning that it can change over time depending on various factors. One of these factors is the passage of time, which can affect the relevance, usefulness, or sensitivity of the data. For example, data that is classified as confidential or secret at one point in time may become obsolete, outdated, or declassified at a later point in time, and thus require a lower level of protection. Conversely, data that is classified as public or unclassified at one point in time may become more valuable, sensitive, or regulated at a later point in time, and thus require a higher level of protection. Therefore, data classification should be reviewed and updated periodically to reflect the changes in the data over time.
The other options are not factors that affect the classification of data, but rather the outcomes or components of data classification. Assigned security label is the result of data classification, which indicates the level of sensitivity or criticality of the data. Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture is a system that supports data classification, which allows different levels of access to data based on the clearance and need-to-know of the users. Minimum query size is a parameter that can be used to enforce data classification, which limits the amount of data that can be retrieved or displayed at a time.
When implementing a data classification program, why is it important to avoid too much granularity?
The process will require too many resources
It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software
It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data
The process will be perceived as having value
The Answer Is:
AExplanation:
When implementing a data classification program, it is important to avoid too much granularity, because the process will require too many resources. Data classification is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity or criticality to data based on its value, impact, and legal requirements. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and handling procedures for the data. However, data classification is not a simple or straightforward process, as it involves many factors, such as the nature, context, and scope of the data, the stakeholders, the regulations, and the standards. If the data classification program has too many levels or categories of data, it will increase the complexity, cost, and time of the process, and reduce the efficiency and effectiveness of the data protection. Therefore, data classification should be done with a balance between granularity and simplicity, and follow the principle of proportionality, which means that the level of protection should be proportional to the level of risk.
The other options are not the main reasons to avoid too much granularity in data classification, but rather the potential challenges or benefits of data classification. It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software is a challenge of data classification, as it requires consistent and compatible methods and tools for labeling and protecting data across different types of media and devices. It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data is a challenge of data classification, as it requires clear and accountable roles and responsibilities for the creation, collection, processing, and disposal of data. The process will be perceived as having value is a benefit of data classification, as it demonstrates the commitment and awareness of the organization to protect its data assets and comply with its obligations.
Which of the following is an effective control in preventing electronic cloning of Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) based access cards?
Personal Identity Verification (PIV)
Cardholder Unique Identifier (CHUID) authentication
Physical Access Control System (PACS) repeated attempt detection
Asymmetric Card Authentication Key (CAK) challenge-response
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
Asymmetric Card Authentication Key (CAK) challenge-response is an effective control in preventing electronic cloning of RFID based access cards. RFID based access cards are contactless cards that use radio frequency identification (RFID) technology to communicate with a reader and grant access to a physical or logical resource. RFID based access cards are vulnerable to electronic cloning, which is the process of copying the data and identity of a legitimate card to a counterfeit card, and using it to impersonate the original cardholder and gain unauthorized access. Asymmetric CAK challenge-response is a cryptographic technique that prevents electronic cloning by using public key cryptography and digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of the card and the reader. Asymmetric CAK challenge-response works as follows:
The card and the reader each have a pair of public and private keys, and the public keys are exchanged and stored in advance.
When the card is presented to the reader, the reader generates a random number (nonce) and sends it to the card.
The card signs the nonce with its private key and sends the signature back to the reader.
The reader verifies the signature with the card’s public key and grants access if the verification is successful.
The card also verifies the reader’s identity by requesting its signature on the nonce and checking it with the reader’s public key.
Asymmetric CAK challenge-response prevents electronic cloning because the private keys of the card and the reader are never transmitted or exposed, and the signatures are unique and non-reusable for each transaction. Therefore, a cloned card cannot produce a valid signature without knowing the private key of the original card, and a rogue reader cannot impersonate a legitimate reader without knowing its private key.
The other options are not as effective as asymmetric CAK challenge-response in preventing electronic cloning of RFID based access cards. Personal Identity Verification (PIV) is a standard for federal employees and contractors to use smart cards for physical and logical access, but it does not specify the cryptographic technique for RFID based access cards. Cardholder Unique Identifier (CHUID) authentication is a technique that uses a unique number and a digital certificate to identify the card and the cardholder, but it does not prevent replay attacks or verify the reader’s identity. Physical Access Control System (PACS) repeated attempt detection is a technique that monitors and alerts on multiple failed or suspicious attempts to access a resource, but it does not prevent the cloning of the card or the impersonation of the reader.
Which of the following is an initial consideration when developing an information security management system?
Identify the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations
Understand the value of the information assets
Identify the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management
Identify relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements
The Answer Is:
BExplanation:
When developing an information security management system (ISMS), an initial consideration is to understand the value of the information assets that the organization owns or processes. An information asset is any data, information, or knowledge that has value to the organization and supports its mission, objectives, and operations. Understanding the value of the information assets helps to determine the appropriate level of protection and investment for them, as well as the potential impact and consequences of losing, compromising, or disclosing them. Understanding the value of the information assets also helps to identify the stakeholders, owners, and custodians of the information assets, and their roles and responsibilities in the ISMS.
The other options are not initial considerations, but rather subsequent or concurrent considerations when developing an ISMS. Identifying the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations is a consideration that depends on the nature, scope, and context of the information assets, as well as the relationships and agreements with the external parties. Identifying the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management is a consideration that depends on the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, as well as the risk assessment and analysis of the information assets. Identifying relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements is a consideration that depends on the legal and ethical obligations and expectations of the organization, as well as the jurisdiction and industry of the information assets.
With what frequency should monitoring of a control occur when implementing Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) solutions?
Continuously without exception for all security controls
Before and after each change of the control
At a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control
Only during system implementation and decommissioning
The Answer Is:
CExplanation:
Monitoring of a control should occur at a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control when implementing Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) solutions. ISCM is a process that involves maintaining the ongoing awareness of the security status, events, and activities of a system or network, by collecting, analyzing, and reporting the security data and information, using various methods and tools. ISCM can provide several benefits, such as:
Improving the security and risk management of the system or network by identifying and addressing the security weaknesses and gaps
Enhancing the security and decision making of the system or network by providing the evidence and information for the security analysis, evaluation, and reporting
Increasing the security and improvement of the system or network by providing the feedback and input for the security response, remediation, and optimization
Facilitating the compliance and alignment of the system or network with the internal or external requirements and standards
A security control is a measure or mechanism that is implemented to protect the system or network from the security threats or risks, by preventing, detecting, or correcting the security incidents or impacts. A security control can have various types, such as administrative, technical, or physical, and various attributes, such as preventive, detective, or corrective. A security control can also have different levels of volatility, which is the degree or frequency of change or variation of the security control, due to various factors, such as the security requirements, the threat landscape, or the system or network environment.
Monitoring of a control should occur at a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control when implementing ISCM solutions, because it can ensure that the ISCM solutions can capture and reflect the current and accurate state and performance of the security control, and can identify and report any issues or risks that might affect the security control. Monitoring of a control at a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control can also help to optimize the ISCM resources and efforts, by allocating them according to the priority and urgency of the security control.
The other options are not the correct frequencies for monitoring of a control when implementing ISCM solutions, but rather incorrect or unrealistic frequencies that might cause problems or inefficiencies for the ISCM solutions. Continuously without exception for all security controls is an incorrect frequency for monitoring of a control when implementing ISCM solutions, because it is not feasible or necessary to monitor all security controls at the same and constant rate, regardless of their volatility or importance. Continuously monitoring all security controls without exception might cause the ISCM solutions to consume excessive or wasteful resources and efforts, and might overwhelm or overload the ISCM solutions with too much or irrelevant data and information. Before and after each change of the control is an incorrect frequency for monitoring of a control when implementing ISCM solutions, because it is not sufficient or timely to monitor the security control only when there is a change of the security control, and not during the normal operation of the security control. Monitoring the security control only before and after each change might cause the ISCM solutions to miss or ignore the security status, events, and activities that occur between the changes of the security control, and might delay or hinder the ISCM solutions from detecting and responding to the security issues or incidents that affect the security control. Only during system implementation and decommissioning is an incorrect frequency for monitoring of a control when implementing ISCM solutions, because it is not appropriate or effective to monitor the security control only during the initial or final stages of the system or network lifecycle, and not during the operational or maintenance stages of the system or network lifecycle. Monitoring the security control only during system implementation and decommissioning might cause the ISCM solutions to neglect or overlook the security status, events, and activities that occur during the regular or ongoing operation of the system or network, and might prevent or limit the ISCM solutions from improving and optimizing the security control.
An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST probable cause?
Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution
Inadequate cost modeling
Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)
Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA)
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA) would be the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. A Web hosting solution is a service that provides the infrastructure, resources, and tools for hosting and maintaining a website or a web application on the internet. A Web hosting solution can offer various benefits, such as:
Improving the availability and accessibility of the website or web application by ensuring that it is online and reachable at all times
Enhancing the performance and scalability of the website or web application by optimizing the speed, load, and capacity of the web server
Increasing the security and reliability of the website or web application by providing the backup, recovery, and protection of the web data and content
Reducing the cost and complexity of the website or web application by outsourcing the web hosting and management to a third-party provider
A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contract or an agreement that defines the expectations, responsibilities, and obligations of the parties involved in a service, such as the service provider and the service consumer. An SLA can include various components, such as:
Service description: a detailed explanation of the scope, purpose, and features of the service
Service level objectives: a set of measurable and quantifiable goals or targets for the service quality, performance, and availability
Service level indicators: a set of metrics or parameters that are used to monitor and evaluate the service level objectives
Service level reporting: a process that involves collecting, analyzing, and communicating the service level indicators and objectives
Service level penalties: a set of consequences or actions that are applied when the service level objectives are not met or violated
Insufficient SLA would be the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it could mean that the SLA does not include or specify the appropriate service level indicators or objectives for the Web hosting solution, or that the SLA does not provide or enforce the adequate service level reporting or penalties for the Web hosting solution. This could affect the ability of the organization to measure and assess the Web hosting solution quality, performance, and availability, and to identify and address any issues or risks in the Web hosting solution.
The other options are not the most probable causes for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, but rather the factors that could affect or improve the Web hosting solution in other ways. Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution is a factor that could affect the ability of the organization to analyze and utilize the data and information from the Web hosting solution, such as the web traffic, behavior, or conversion. A BI solution is a system that involves the collection, integration, processing, and presentation of the data and information from various sources, such as the Web hosting solution, to support the decision making and planning of the organization. However, absence of a BI solution is not the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it does not affect the definition or specification of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution, but rather the analysis or usage of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution. Inadequate cost modeling is a factor that could affect the ability of the organization to estimate and optimize the cost and value of the Web hosting solution, such as the web hosting fees, maintenance costs, or return on investment. A cost model is a tool or a method that helps the organization to calculate and compare the cost and value of the Web hosting solution, and to identify and implement the best or most efficient Web hosting solution. However, inadequate cost modeling is not the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it does not affect the definition or specification of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution, but rather the estimation or optimization of the cost and value of the Web hosting solution. Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) is a factor that could affect the ability of the organization to design and develop the Web hosting solution, such as the web services, components, or interfaces. A SOA is a software architecture that involves the modularization, standardization, and integration of the software components or services that provide the functionality or logic of the Web hosting solution. A SOA can offer various benefits, such as:
Improving the flexibility and scalability of the Web hosting solution by allowing the addition, modification, or removal of the software components or services without affecting the whole Web hosting solution
Enhancing the interoperability and compatibility of the Web hosting solution by enabling the communication and interaction of the software components or services across different platforms and technologies
Increasing the reusability and maintainability of the Web hosting solution by reducing the duplication and complexity of the software components or services
However, improper deployment of the SOA is not the most probable cause for an organization to lack the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit, because it does not affect the definition or specification of the performance indicators for the Web hosting solution, but rather the design or development of the Web hosting solution.
A continuous information security-monitoring program can BEST reduce risk through which of the following?
Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies
Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts
Encompassing people, process, and technology
Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes
The Answer Is:
CExplanation:
A continuous information security monitoring program can best reduce risk through encompassing people, process, and technology. A continuous information security monitoring program is a process that involves maintaining the ongoing awareness of the security status, events, and activities of a system or network, by collecting, analyzing, and reporting the security data and information, using various methods and tools. A continuous information security monitoring program can provide several benefits, such as:
Improving the security and risk management of the system or network by identifying and addressing the security weaknesses and gaps
Enhancing the security and decision making of the system or network by providing the evidence and information for the security analysis, evaluation, and reporting
Increasing the security and improvement of the system or network by providing the feedback and input for the security response, remediation, and optimization
Facilitating the compliance and alignment of the system or network with the internal or external requirements and standards
A continuous information security monitoring program can best reduce risk through encompassing people, process, and technology, because it can ensure that the continuous information security monitoring program is holistic and comprehensive, and that it covers all the aspects and elements of the system or network security. People, process, and technology are the three pillars of a continuous information security monitoring program, and they represent the following:
People: the human resources that are involved in the continuous information security monitoring program, such as the security analysts, the system administrators, the management, and the users. People are responsible for defining the security objectives and requirements, implementing and operating the security tools and controls, and monitoring and responding to the security events and incidents.
Process: the procedures and policies that are followed in the continuous information security monitoring program, such as the security standards and guidelines, the security roles and responsibilities, the security workflows and tasks, and the security metrics and indicators. Process is responsible for establishing and maintaining the security governance and compliance, ensuring the security consistency and efficiency, and measuring and evaluating the security performance and effectiveness.
Technology: the tools and systems that are used in the continuous information security monitoring program, such as the security sensors and agents, the security loggers and collectors, the security analyzers and correlators, and the security dashboards and reports. Technology is responsible for supporting and enabling the security functions and capabilities, providing the security visibility and awareness, and delivering the security data and information.
The other options are not the best ways to reduce risk through a continuous information security monitoring program, but rather specific or partial ways that can contribute to the risk reduction. Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies is a specific way to reduce risk through a continuous information security monitoring program, but it is not the best way, because it only focuses on one aspect of the security data and information, and it does not address the other aspects, such as the security objectives and requirements, the security controls and measures, and the security feedback and improvement. Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts is a partial way to reduce risk through a continuous information security monitoring program, but it is not the best way, because it only covers one element of the system or network security, and it does not cover the other elements, such as the security threats and vulnerabilities, the security incidents and impacts, and the security response and remediation. Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes is a specific way to reduce risk through a continuous information security monitoring program, but it is not the best way, because it only focuses on one type of the security events and activities, and it does not focus on the other types, such as the security alerts and notifications, the security analysis and correlation, and the security reporting and documentation.
Which of the following is a PRIMARY advantage of using a third-party identity service?
Consolidation of multiple providers
Directory synchronization
Web based logon
Automated account management
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
Consolidation of multiple providers is the primary advantage of using a third-party identity service. A third-party identity service is a service that provides identity and access management (IAM) functions, such as authentication, authorization, and federation, for multiple applications or systems, using a single identity provider (IdP). A third-party identity service can offer various benefits, such as:
Improving the user experience and convenience by allowing the users to access multiple applications or systems with a single sign-on (SSO) or a federated identity
Enhancing the security and compliance by applying the consistent and standardized IAM policies and controls across multiple applications or systems
Increasing the scalability and flexibility by enabling the integration and interoperability of multiple applications or systems with different platforms and technologies
Reducing the cost and complexity by outsourcing the IAM functions to a third-party provider, and avoiding the duplication and maintenance of multiple IAM systems
Consolidation of multiple providers is the primary advantage of using a third-party identity service, because it can simplify and streamline the IAM architecture and processes, by reducing the number of IdPs and IAM systems that are involved in managing the identities and access for multiple applications or systems. Consolidation of multiple providers can also help to avoid the issues or risks that might arise from having multiple IdPs and IAM systems, such as the inconsistency, redundancy, or conflict of the IAM policies and controls, or the inefficiency, vulnerability, or disruption of the IAM functions.
The other options are not the primary advantages of using a third-party identity service, but rather secondary or specific advantages for different aspects or scenarios of using a third-party identity service. Directory synchronization is an advantage of using a third-party identity service, but it is more relevant for the scenario where the organization has an existing directory service, such as LDAP or Active Directory, that stores and manages the user accounts and attributes, and wants to synchronize them with the third-party identity service, to enable the SSO or federation for the users. Web based logon is an advantage of using a third-party identity service, but it is more relevant for the aspect where the third-party identity service uses a web-based protocol, such as SAML or OAuth, to facilitate the SSO or federation for the users, by redirecting them to a web-based logon page, where they can enter their credentials or consent. Automated account management is an advantage of using a third-party identity service, but it is more relevant for the aspect where the third-party identity service provides the IAM functions, such as provisioning, deprovisioning, or updating, for the user accounts and access rights, using an automated or self-service mechanism, such as SCIM or JIT.
Which of the following types of business continuity tests includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations?
Walkthrough
Simulation
Parallel
White box
The Answer Is:
BExplanation:
Simulation is the type of business continuity test that includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations. Business continuity is the ability of an organization to maintain or resume its critical functions and operations in the event of a disruption or disaster. Business continuity testing is the process of evaluating and validating the effectiveness and readiness of the business continuity plan (BCP) and the disaster recovery plan (DRP) through various methods and scenarios. Business continuity testing can provide several benefits, such as:
Improving the confidence and competence of the organization and its staff in handling a disruption or disaster
Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the organization and its systems in recovering from a disruption or disaster
Increasing the compliance and alignment of the organization and its plans with the internal or external requirements and standards
Facilitating the monitoring and improvement of the organization and its plans by identifying and addressing any gaps, issues, or risks
There are different types of business continuity tests, depending on the scope, purpose, and complexity of the test. Some of the common types are:
Walkthrough: a type of business continuity test that involves reviewing and discussing the BCP and DRP with the relevant stakeholders, such as the business continuity team, the management, and the staff. A walkthrough can provide a basic and qualitative assessment of the BCP and DRP, and can help to familiarize and educate the stakeholders with the plans and their roles and responsibilities.
Simulation: a type of business continuity test that involves performing and practicing the BCP and DRP with the relevant stakeholders, using simulated or hypothetical scenarios, such as a fire drill, a power outage, or a cyberattack. A simulation can provide a realistic and quantitative assessment of the BCP and DRP, and can help to test and train the stakeholders with the plans and their actions and reactions.
Parallel: a type of business continuity test that involves activating and operating the alternate site or system, while maintaining the normal operations at the primary site or system. A parallel test can provide a comprehensive and comparative assessment of the BCP and DRP, and can help to verify and validate the functionality and compatibility of the alternate site or system.
Full interruption: a type of business continuity test that involves shutting down and transferring the normal operations from the primary site or system to the alternate site or system. A full interruption test can provide a conclusive and definitive assessment of the BCP and DRP, and can help to evaluate and measure the impact and effectiveness of the plans.
Simulation is the type of business continuity test that includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations, because it can simulate various types of risks, such as natural, human, or technical, and assess how the organization and its systems can cope and recover from them, without actually causing any harm or disruption to the live operations. Simulation can also help to identify and mitigate any potential risks that might affect the live operations, and to improve the resilience and preparedness of the organization and its systems.
The other options are not the types of business continuity tests that include assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations, but rather types that have other objectives or effects. Walkthrough is a type of business continuity test that does not include assessment of resilience to internal and external risks, but rather a review and discussion of the BCP and DRP, without any actual testing or practice. Parallel is a type of business continuity test that does not endanger live operations, but rather maintains them, while activating and operating the alternate site or system. Full interruption is a type of business continuity test that does endanger live operations, by shutting them down and transferring them to the alternate site or system.
What would be the MOST cost effective solution for a Disaster Recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours?
Warm site
Hot site
Mirror site
Cold site
The Answer Is:
AExplanation:
A warm site is the most cost effective solution for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours. A DR site is a backup facility that can be used to restore the normal operation of the organization’s IT systems and infrastructure after a disruption or disaster. A DR site can have different levels of readiness and functionality, depending on the organization’s recovery objectives and budget. The main types of DR sites are:
Hot site: a DR site that is fully operational and equipped with the necessary hardware, software, telecommunication lines, and network connectivity to allow the organization to be up and running almost immediately. A hot site has all the required servers, workstations, and communications links, and can function as a branch office or data center that is online and connected to the production network. A hot site also has a backup of the data from the systems at the primary site, which may be replicated in real time or near real time. A hot site greatly reduces or eliminates downtime for the organization, but it is also very expensive to maintain and operate.
Warm site: a DR site that is partially operational and equipped with some of the hardware, software, telecommunication lines, and network connectivity to allow the organization to be up and running within a short time. A warm site has some of the required servers, workstations, and communications links, and can function as a temporary office or data center that is offline or partially connected to the production network. A warm site may have a backup of the data from the systems at the primary site, but it is not updated or synchronized as frequently as a hot site. A warm site reduces downtime for the organization, but it is also less expensive than a hot site.
Cold site: a DR site that is not operational and equipped with only the basic infrastructure and environmental support systems to allow the organization to be up and running within a long time. A cold site has none of the required servers, workstations, and communications links, and cannot function as an office or data center until they are installed and configured. A cold site does not have a backup of the data from the systems at the primary site, and it has to be restored from other sources, such as tapes or disks. A cold site increases downtime for the organization, but it is also the cheapest option among the DR sites.
Mirror site: a DR site that is an exact replica of the primary site, with the same hardware, software, telecommunication lines, and network connectivity, and with the same data and applications. A mirror site is always online and synchronized with the primary site, and can take over the operation of the organization seamlessly in the event of a disruption or disaster. A mirror site eliminates downtime for the organization, but it is also the most expensive option among the DR sites.
A warm site is the most cost effective solution for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, because it can provide a balance between the recovery time and the recovery cost. A warm site can enable the organization to resume its critical functions and operations within a reasonable time frame, without spending too much on the DR site maintenance and operation. A warm site can also provide some flexibility and scalability for the organization to adjust its recovery strategies and resources according to its needs and priorities.
The other options are not the most cost effective solutions for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, but rather solutions that are either too costly or too slow for the organization’s recovery objectives and budget. A hot site is a solution that is too costly for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, because it requires the organization to invest a lot of money on the DR site equipment, software, and services, and to pay for the ongoing operational and maintenance costs. A hot site may be more suitable for the organization’s systems that cannot be unavailable for more than a few hours or minutes, or that have very high availability and performance requirements. A mirror site is a solution that is too costly for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, because it requires the organization to duplicate its entire primary site, with the same hardware, software, data, and applications, and to keep them online and synchronized at all times. A mirror site may be more suitable for the organization’s systems that cannot afford any downtime or data loss, or that have very strict compliance and regulatory requirements. A cold site is a solution that is too slow for a disaster recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours, because it requires the organization to spend a lot of time and effort on the DR site installation, configuration, and restoration, and to rely on other sources of backup data and applications. A cold site may be more suitable for the organization’s systems that can be unavailable for more than a few days or weeks, or that have very low criticality and priority.
When is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) considered to be valid?
When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager
When it has been validated by the board of directors
When it has been validated by all threat scenarios
When it has been validated by realistic exercises
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is considered to be valid when it has been validated by realistic exercises. A BCP is a part of a BCP/DRP that focuses on ensuring the continuous operation of the organization’s critical business functions and processes during and after a disruption or disaster. A BCP should include various components, such as:
Business impact analysis: a process that identifies and prioritizes the critical business functions and processes, and assesses the potential impacts and risks of a disruption or disaster on them
Recovery strategies: a process that defines and selects the appropriate methods and resources to recover the critical business functions and processes, such as alternate sites, backup systems, or recovery teams
BCP document: a document that outlines and details the scope, purpose, and features of the BCP, such as the roles and responsibilities, the recovery procedures, and the contact information
Testing, training, and exercises: a process that evaluates and validates the effectiveness and readiness of the BCP, and educates and trains the relevant stakeholders, such as the staff, the management, and the customers, on the BCP and their roles and responsibilities
Maintenance and review: a process that monitors and updates the BCP, and addresses any changes or issues that might affect the BCP, such as the business requirements, the threat landscape, or the feedback and lessons learned
A BCP is considered to be valid when it has been validated by realistic exercises, because it can ensure that the BCP is practical and applicable, and that it can achieve the desired outcomes and objectives in a real-life scenario. Realistic exercises are a type of testing, training, and exercises that involve performing and practicing the BCP with the relevant stakeholders, using simulated or hypothetical scenarios, such as a fire drill, a power outage, or a cyberattack. Realistic exercises can provide several benefits, such as:
Improving the confidence and competence of the organization and its staff in handling a disruption or disaster
Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the organization and its systems in recovering from a disruption or disaster
Increasing the compliance and alignment of the organization and its plans with the internal or external requirements and standards
Facilitating the monitoring and improvement of the organization and its plans by identifying and addressing any gaps, issues, or risks
The other options are not the criteria for considering a BCP to be valid, but rather the steps or parties that are involved in developing or approving a BCP. When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager is not a criterion for considering a BCP to be valid, but rather a step that is involved in developing a BCP. The BC manager is the person who is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the BCP activities and processes, such as the business impact analysis, the recovery strategies, the BCP document, the testing, training, and exercises, and the maintenance and review. The BC manager can validate the BCP by reviewing and verifying the BCP components and outcomes, and ensuring that they meet the BCP standards and objectives. However, the validation by the BC manager is not enough to consider the BCP to be valid, as it does not test or demonstrate the BCP in a realistic scenario. When it has been validated by the board of directors is not a criterion for considering a BCP to be valid, but rather a party that is involved in approving a BCP. The board of directors is the group of people who are elected by the shareholders to represent their interests and to oversee the strategic direction and governance of the organization. The board of directors can approve the BCP by endorsing and supporting the BCP components and outcomes, and allocating the necessary resources and funds for the BCP. However, the approval by the board of directors is not enough to consider the BCP to be valid, as it does not test or demonstrate the BCP in a realistic scenario. When it has been validated by all threat scenarios is not a criterion for considering a BCP to be valid, but rather an unrealistic or impossible expectation for validating a BCP. A threat scenario is a description or a simulation of a possible or potential disruption or disaster that might affect the organization’s critical business functions and processes, such as a natural hazard, a human error, or a technical failure. A threat scenario can be used to test and validate the BCP by measuring and evaluating the BCP’s performance and effectiveness in responding and recovering from the disruption or disaster. However, it is not possible or feasible to validate the BCP by all threat scenarios, as there are too many or unknown threat scenarios that might occur, and some threat scenarios might be too severe or complex to simulate or test. Therefore, the BCP should be validated by the most likely or relevant threat scenarios, and not by all threat scenarios.
What is the MOST important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application?
Disable all unnecessary services
Ensure chain of custody
Prepare another backup of the system
Isolate the system from the network
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
Isolating the system from the network is the most important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application. An unknown application is an application that is not recognized or authorized by the system or network administrator, and that may have been installed or executed without the user’s knowledge or consent. An unknown application may have various purposes, such as:
Providing a legitimate or useful function or service for the user, such as a utility or a tool
Providing an illegitimate or malicious function or service for the attacker, such as a malware or a backdoor
Providing a neutral or benign function or service for the developer, such as a trial or a demo
Forensic analysis is a process that involves examining and investigating the system or network for any evidence or traces of the unknown application, such as its origin, nature, behavior, and impact. Forensic analysis can provide several benefits, such as:
Identifying and classifying the unknown application as legitimate, malicious, or neutral
Determining and assessing the purpose and function of the unknown application
Detecting and resolving any issues or risks caused by the unknown application
Preventing and mitigating any future incidents or attacks involving the unknown application
Isolating the system from the network is the most important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application, because it can ensure that the system is isolated and protected from any external or internal influences or interferences, and that the forensic analysis is conducted in a safe and controlled environment. Isolating the system from the network can also help to:
Prevent the unknown application from communicating or connecting with any other system or network, and potentially spreading or escalating the attack
Prevent the unknown application from receiving or sending any commands or data, and potentially altering or deleting the evidence
Prevent the unknown application from detecting or evading the forensic analysis, and potentially hiding or destroying itself
The other options are not the most important steps during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application, but rather steps that should be done after or along with isolating the system from the network. Disabling all unnecessary services is a step that should be done after isolating the system from the network, because it can ensure that the system is optimized and simplified for the forensic analysis, and that the system resources and functions are not consumed or affected by any irrelevant or redundant services. Ensuring chain of custody is a step that should be done along with isolating the system from the network, because it can ensure that the integrity and authenticity of the evidence are maintained and documented throughout the forensic process, and that the evidence can be traced and verified. Preparing another backup of the system is a step that should be done after isolating the system from the network, because it can ensure that the system data and configuration are preserved and replicated for the forensic analysis, and that the system can be restored and recovered in case of any damage or loss.
Which of the following is the FIRST step in the incident response process?
Determine the cause of the incident
Disconnect the system involved from the network
Isolate and contain the system involved
Investigate all symptoms to confirm the incident
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident is the first step in the incident response process. An incident is an event that violates or threatens the security, availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the IT systems or data. An incident response is a process that involves detecting, analyzing, containing, eradicating, recovering, and learning from an incident, using various methods and tools. An incident response can provide several benefits, such as:
Improving the security and risk management of the IT systems and data by identifying and addressing the security weaknesses and gaps
Enhancing the security and decision making of the IT systems and data by providing the evidence and information for the security analysis, evaluation, and reporting
Increasing the security and improvement of the IT systems and data by providing the feedback and input for the security response, remediation, and optimization
Facilitating the compliance and alignment of the IT systems and data with the internal or external requirements and standards
Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident is the first step in the incident response process, because it can ensure that the incident is verified and validated, and that the incident response is initiated and escalated. A symptom is a sign or an indication that an incident may have occurred or is occurring, such as an alert, a log, or a report. Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident involves collecting and analyzing the relevant data and information from various sources, such as the IT systems, the network, the users, or the external parties, and determining whether an incident has actually happened or is happening, and how serious or urgent it is. Investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident can also help to:
Prevent the false positives or negatives that might cause the incident response to be delayed or unnecessary
Identify the scope and impact of the incident on the IT systems and data
Notify and inform the appropriate stakeholders and authorities about the incident
Activate and coordinate the incident response team and resources
The other options are not the first steps in the incident response process, but rather steps that should be done after or along with investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident. Determining the cause of the incident is a step that should be done after investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident, because it can ensure that the root cause and source of the incident are identified and analyzed, and that the incident response is directed and focused. Determining the cause of the incident involves examining and testing the affected IT systems and data, and tracing and tracking the origin and path of the incident, using various techniques and tools, such as forensics, malware analysis, or reverse engineering. Determining the cause of the incident can also help to:
Understand the nature and behavior of the incident and the attacker
Detect and resolve any issues or risks caused by the incident
Prevent and mitigate any future incidents or attacks involving the same or similar cause
Support and enable the legal or regulatory actions or investigations against the incident or the attacker
Disconnecting the system involved from the network is a step that should be done along with investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident, because it can ensure that the system is isolated and protected from any external or internal influences or interferences, and that the incident response is conducted in a safe and controlled environment. Disconnecting the system involved from the network can also help to:
Prevent the incident from communicating or connecting with any other system or network, and potentially spreading or escalating the attack
Prevent the incident from receiving or sending any commands or data, and potentially altering or deleting the evidence
Prevent the incident from detecting or evading the incident response, and potentially hiding or destroying itself
Isolating and containing the system involved is a step that should be done after investigating all symptoms to confirm the incident, because it can ensure that the incident is confined and restricted, and that the incident response is continued and maintained. Isolating and containing the system involved involves applying and enforcing the appropriate security measures and controls to limit or stop the activity and impact of the incident on the IT systems and data, such as firewall rules, access policies, or encryption keys. Isolating and containing the system involved can also help to:
Minimize the damage and loss caused by the incident on the IT systems and data
Maximize the recovery and restoration of the IT systems and data
Support and enable the eradication and removal of the incident from the IT systems and data
Facilitate the learning and improvement of the IT systems and data from the incident
What should be the FIRST action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved?
Take the computer to a forensic lab
Make a copy of the hard drive
Start documenting
Turn off the computer
The Answer Is:
BExplanation:
Making a copy of the hard drive should be the first action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved. A chain of evidence, also known as a chain of custody, is a process that documents and preserves the integrity and authenticity of the evidence collected from a crime scene, such as a desktop computer. A chain of evidence should include information such as:
The identity and role of the person who collected, handled, or transferred the evidence
The date and time of the collection, handling, or transfer of the evidence
The location and condition of the evidence
The method and tool used to collect, handle, or transfer the evidence
The signature or seal of the person who collected, handled, or transferred the evidence
Making a copy of the hard drive should be the first action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved, because it can ensure that the original hard drive is not altered, damaged, or destroyed during the forensic analysis, and that the copy can be used as a reliable and admissible source of evidence. Making a copy of the hard drive should also involve using a write blocker, which is a device or a software that prevents any modification or deletion of the data on the hard drive, and generating a hash value, which is a unique and fixed identifier that can verify the integrity and consistency of the data on the hard drive.
The other options are not the first actions to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved, but rather actions that should be done after or along with making a copy of the hard drive. Taking the computer to a forensic lab is an action that should be done after making a copy of the hard drive, because it can ensure that the computer is transported and stored in a secure and controlled environment, and that the forensic analysis is conducted by qualified and authorized personnel. Starting documenting is an action that should be done along with making a copy of the hard drive, because it can ensure that the chain of evidence is maintained and recorded throughout the forensic process, and that the evidence can be traced and verified. Turning off the computer is an action that should be done after making a copy of the hard drive, because it can ensure that the computer is powered down and disconnected from any network or device, and that the computer is protected from any further damage or tampering.
Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) MUST be aligned with which of the following?
Hardware and software compatibility issues
Applications’ critically and downtime tolerance
Budget constraints and requirements
Cost/benefit analysis and business objectives
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRP) must be aligned with the cost/benefit analysis and business objectives. A DRP is a part of a BCP/DRP that focuses on restoring the normal operation of the organization’s IT systems and infrastructure after a disruption or disaster. A DRP should include various components, such as:
Risk assessment: a process that identifies and evaluates the potential threats and vulnerabilities that might affect the IT systems and infrastructure, and estimates the likelihood and impact of a disruption or disaster
Recovery objectives: a process that defines and quantifies the acceptable levels of recovery for the IT systems and infrastructure, such as the recovery point objective (RPO), which is the maximum amount of data loss that can be tolerated, and the recovery time objective (RTO), which is the maximum amount of downtime that can be tolerated
Recovery strategies: a process that selects and implements the appropriate methods and resources to recover the IT systems and infrastructure, such as backup, replication, redundancy, or failover
DRP document: a document that outlines and details the scope, purpose, and features of the DRP, such as the roles and responsibilities, the recovery procedures, and the contact information
Testing, training, and exercises: a process that evaluates and validates the effectiveness and readiness of the DRP, and educates and trains the relevant stakeholders, such as the IT staff, the management, and the users, on the DRP and their roles and responsibilities
Maintenance and review: a process that monitors and updates the DRP, and addresses any changes or issues that might affect the DRP, such as the IT requirements, the threat landscape, or the feedback and lessons learned
Recovery strategies of a DRP must be aligned with the cost/benefit analysis and business objectives, because it can ensure that the DRP is feasible and suitable, and that it can achieve the desired outcomes and objectives in a cost-effective and efficient manner. A cost/benefit analysis is a technique that compares the costs and benefits of different recovery strategies, and determines the optimal one that provides the best value for money. A business objective is a goal or a target that the organization wants to achieve through its IT systems and infrastructure, such as increasing the productivity, profitability, or customer satisfaction. A recovery strategy that is aligned with the cost/benefit analysis and business objectives can help to:
Optimize the use and allocation of the IT resources and funds for the recovery
Minimize the negative impacts and risks of a disruption or disaster on the IT systems and infrastructure
Maximize the positive outcomes and benefits of the recovery for the IT systems and infrastructure
Support and enable the achievement of the organizational goals and targets through the IT systems and infrastructure
The other options are not the factors that the recovery strategies of a DRP must be aligned with, but rather factors that should be considered or addressed when developing or implementing the recovery strategies of a DRP. Hardware and software compatibility issues are factors that should be considered when developing the recovery strategies of a DRP, because they can affect the functionality and interoperability of the IT systems and infrastructure, and may require additional resources or adjustments to resolve them. Applications’ criticality and downtime tolerance are factors that should be addressed when implementing the recovery strategies of a DRP, because they can determine the priority and urgency of the recovery for different applications, and may require different levels of recovery objectives and resources. Budget constraints and requirements are factors that should be considered when developing the recovery strategies of a DRP, because they can limit the availability and affordability of the IT resources and funds for the recovery, and may require trade-offs or compromises to balance them.
What is the PRIMARY reason for implementing change management?
Certify and approve releases to the environment
Provide version rollbacks for system changes
Ensure that all applications are approved
Ensure accountability for changes to the environment
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
Ensuring accountability for changes to the environment is the primary reason for implementing change management. Change management is a process that ensures that any changes to the system or network environment, such as the hardware, software, configuration, or documentation, are planned, approved, implemented, and documented in a controlled and consistent manner. Change management can provide several benefits, such as:
Improving the security and reliability of the system or network environment by preventing or reducing the errors, conflicts, or disruptions that might occur due to the changes
Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the system or network environment by optimizing the resources and functions
Increasing the compliance and alignment of the system or network environment with the internal or external requirements and standards
Facilitating the monitoring and improvement of the system or network environment by tracking and logging the changes and their outcomes
Ensuring accountability for changes to the environment is the primary reason for implementing change management, because it can ensure that the changes are authorized, justified, and traceable, and that the parties involved in the changes are responsible and accountable for their actions and results. Accountability can also help to deter or detect any unauthorized or malicious changes that might compromise the system or network environment.
The other options are not the primary reasons for implementing change management, but rather secondary or specific reasons for different aspects or phases of change management. Certifying and approving releases to the environment is a reason for implementing change management, but it is more relevant for the approval phase of change management, which is the phase that involves reviewing and validating the changes and their impacts, and granting or denying the permission to proceed with the changes. Providing version rollbacks for system changes is a reason for implementing change management, but it is more relevant for the implementation phase of change management, which is the phase that involves executing and monitoring the changes and their effects, and providing the backup and recovery options for the changes. Ensuring that all applications are approved is a reason for implementing change management, but it is more relevant for the application changes, which are the changes that affect the software components or services that provide the functionality or logic of the system or network environment.
A Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) will provide which of the following?
Guaranteed recovery of all business functions
Minimization of the need decision making during a crisis
Insurance against litigation following a disaster
Protection from loss of organization resources
The Answer Is:
BExplanation:
Minimization of the need for decision making during a crisis is the main benefit that a Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) will provide. A BCP/DRP is a set of policies, procedures, and resources that enable an organization to continue or resume its critical functions and operations in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP/DRP can provide several benefits, such as:
Improving the resilience and preparedness of the organization and its staff in handling a disruption or disaster
Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the organization and its systems in recovering from a disruption or disaster
Increasing the compliance and alignment of the organization and its plans with the internal or external requirements and standards
Facilitating the monitoring and improvement of the organization and its plans by identifying and addressing any gaps, issues, or risks
Minimization of the need for decision making during a crisis is the main benefit that a BCP/DRP will provide, because it can ensure that the organization and its staff have a clear and consistent guidance and direction on how to respond and act during a disruption or disaster, and avoid any confusion, uncertainty, or inconsistency that might worsen the situation or impact. A BCP/DRP can also help to reduce the stress and pressure on the organization and its staff during a crisis, and increase their confidence and competence in executing the plans.
The other options are not the benefits that a BCP/DRP will provide, but rather unrealistic or incorrect expectations or outcomes of a BCP/DRP. Guaranteed recovery of all business functions is not a benefit that a BCP/DRP will provide, because it is not possible or feasible to recover all business functions after a disruption or disaster, especially if the disruption or disaster is severe or prolonged. A BCP/DRP can only prioritize and recover the most critical or essential business functions, and may have to suspend or terminate the less critical or non-essential business functions. Insurance against litigation following a disaster is not a benefit that a BCP/DRP will provide, because it is not a guarantee or protection that the organization will not face any legal or regulatory consequences or liabilities after a disruption or disaster, especially if the disruption or disaster is caused by the organization’s negligence or misconduct. A BCP/DRP can only help to mitigate or reduce the legal or regulatory risks, and may have to comply with or report to the relevant authorities or parties. Protection from loss of organization resources is not a benefit that a BCP/DRP will provide, because it is not a prevention or avoidance of any damage or destruction of the organization’s assets or resources during a disruption or disaster, especially if the disruption or disaster is physical or natural. A BCP/DRP can only help to restore or replace the lost or damaged assets or resources, and may have to incur some costs or losses.
Which of the following is a web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs?
Check arguments in function calls
Test for the security patch level of the environment
Include logging functions
Digitally sign each application module
The Answer Is:
BExplanation:
Testing for the security patch level of the environment is the web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs. OS bugs are errors or defects in the code or logic of the OS that can cause the OS to malfunction or behave unexpectedly. OS bugs can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, disrupt business operations, or steal or leak sensitive data. Testing for the security patch level of the environment is the web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of OS bugs, because it can provide several benefits, such as:
Detecting and resolving any vulnerabilities or issues caused by the OS bugs by applying the latest security patches or updates from the OS developers or vendors
Enhancing the security and performance of the web applications by using the most secure and efficient version of the OS that supports the web applications
Increasing the compliance and alignment of the web applications with the security policies and regulations that are applicable to the web applications
Improving the compatibility and interoperability of the web applications with the other systems or platforms that interact with the web applications
The other options are not the web application controls that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of OS bugs, but rather web application controls that can prevent or mitigate other types of web application attacks or issues. Checking arguments in function calls is a web application control that can prevent or mitigate buffer overflow attacks, which are attacks that exploit the vulnerability of the web application code that does not properly check the size or length of the input data that is passed to a function or a variable, and overwrite the adjacent memory locations with malicious code or data. Including logging functions is a web application control that can prevent or mitigate unauthorized access or modification attacks, which are attacks that exploit the lack of or weak authentication or authorization mechanisms of the web applications, and access or modify the web application data or functionality without proper permission or verification. Digitally signing each application module is a web application control that can prevent or mitigate code injection or tampering attacks, which are attacks that exploit the vulnerability of the web application code that does not properly validate or sanitize the input data that is executed or interpreted by the web application, and inject or modify the web application code with malicious code or data.
Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment?
Purchase software from a limited list of retailers
Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates
Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet
Test all new software in a segregated environment
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
Testing all new software in a segregated environment is the best method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment. Malware is any malicious software that can harm or compromise the security, availability, integrity, or confidentiality of a system or data. Malware can be introduced into a production environment through various sources, such as software downloads, updates, patches, or installations. Testing all new software in a segregated environment involves verifying and validating the functionality and security of the software before deploying it to the production environment, using a separate system or network that is isolated and protected from the production environment. Testing all new software in a segregated environment can provide several benefits, such as:
Preventing the infection or propagation of malware to the production environment
Detecting and resolving any issues or risks caused by the software
Ensuring the compatibility and interoperability of the software with the production environment
Supporting and enabling the quality assurance and improvement of the software
The other options are not the best methods to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment, but rather methods that can reduce or mitigate the risk of malware, but not eliminate it. Purchasing software from a limited list of retailers is a method that can reduce the risk of malware from being introduced into a production environment, but not prevent it. This method involves obtaining software only from trusted and reputable sources, such as official vendors or distributors, that can provide some assurance of the quality and security of the software. However, this method does not guarantee that the software is free of malware, as it may still contain hidden or embedded malware, or it may be tampered with or compromised during the delivery or installation process. Verifying the hash key or certificate key of all updates is a method that can reduce the risk of malware from being introduced into a production environment, but not prevent it. This method involves checking the authenticity and integrity of the software updates, patches, or installations, by comparing the hash key or certificate key of the software with the expected or published value, using cryptographic techniques and tools. However, this method does not guarantee that the software is free of malware, as it may still contain malware that is not detected or altered by the hash key or certificate key, or it may be subject to a man-in-the-middle attack or a replay attack that can intercept or modify the software or the key. Not permitting programs, patches, or updates from the Internet is a method that can reduce the risk of malware from being introduced into a production environment, but not prevent it. This method involves restricting or blocking the access or download of software from the Internet, which is a common and convenient source of malware, by applying and enforcing the appropriate security policies and controls, such as firewall rules, antivirus software, or web filters. However, this method does not guarantee that the software is free of malware, as it may still be obtained or infected from other sources, such as removable media, email attachments, or network shares.
What is the BEST approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications?
Debug the security issues
Migrate to newer, supported applications where possible
Conduct a security assessment
Protect the legacy application with a web application firewall
The Answer Is:
BExplanation:
Migrating to newer, supported applications where possible is the best approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications. Legacy web applications are web applications that are outdated, unsupported, or incompatible with the current technologies and standards. Legacy web applications may have various security issues, such as:
Vulnerabilities and bugs that are not fixed or patched by the developers or vendors
Weak or obsolete encryption and authentication mechanisms that are easily broken or bypassed by attackers
Lack of compliance with the security policies and regulations that are applicable to the web applications
Incompatibility or interoperability issues with the newer web browsers, operating systems, or platforms that are used by the users or clients
Migrating to newer, supported applications where possible is the best approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications, because it can provide several benefits, such as:
Enhancing the security and performance of the web applications by using the latest technologies and standards that are more secure and efficient
Reducing the risk and impact of the web application attacks by eliminating or minimizing the vulnerabilities and bugs that are present in the legacy web applications
Increasing the compliance and alignment of the web applications with the security policies and regulations that are applicable to the web applications
Improving the compatibility and interoperability of the web applications with the newer web browsers, operating systems, or platforms that are used by the users or clients
The other options are not the best approaches to addressing security issues in legacy web applications, but rather approaches that can mitigate or remediate the security issues, but not eliminate or prevent them. Debugging the security issues is an approach that can mitigate the security issues in legacy web applications, but not the best approach, because it involves identifying and fixing the errors or defects in the code or logic of the web applications, which may be difficult or impossible to do for the legacy web applications that are outdated or unsupported. Conducting a security assessment is an approach that can remediate the security issues in legacy web applications, but not the best approach, because it involves evaluating and testing the security effectiveness and compliance of the web applications, using various techniques and tools, such as audits, reviews, scans, or penetration tests, and identifying and reporting any security weaknesses or gaps, which may not be sufficient or feasible to do for the legacy web applications that are incompatible or obsolete. Protecting the legacy application with a web application firewall is an approach that can mitigate the security issues in legacy web applications, but not the best approach, because it involves deploying and configuring a web application firewall, which is a security device or software that monitors and filters the web traffic between the web applications and the users or clients, and blocks or allows the web requests or responses based on the predefined rules or policies, which may not be effective or efficient to do for the legacy web applications that have weak or outdated encryption or authentication mechanisms.
The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in which phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
System acquisition and development
System operations and maintenance
System initiation
System implementation
The Answer Is:
AExplanation:
The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in the system acquisition and development phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC). The SDLC is a process that involves planning, designing, developing, testing, deploying, operating, and maintaining a system, using various models and methodologies, such as waterfall, spiral, agile, or DevSecOps. The SDLC can be divided into several phases, each with its own objectives and activities, such as:
System initiation: This phase involves defining the scope, purpose, and objectives of the system, identifying the stakeholders and their needs and expectations, and establishing the project plan and budget.
System acquisition and development: This phase involves designing the architecture and components of the system, selecting and procuring the hardware and software resources, developing and coding the system functionality and features, and integrating and testing the system modules and interfaces.
System implementation: This phase involves deploying and installing the system to the production environment, migrating and converting the data and applications from the legacy system, training and educating the users and staff on the system operation and maintenance, and evaluating and validating the system performance and effectiveness.
System operations and maintenance: This phase involves operating and monitoring the system functionality and availability, maintaining and updating the system hardware and software, resolving and troubleshooting any issues or problems, and enhancing and optimizing the system features and capabilities.
The certification and accreditation process is a process that involves assessing and verifying the security and compliance of a system, and authorizing and approving the system operation and maintenance, using various standards and frameworks, such as NIST SP 800-37 or ISO/IEC 27001. The certification and accreditation process can be divided into several tasks, each with its own objectives and activities, such as:
Security categorization: This task involves determining the security level and impact of the system and its data, based on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability criteria, and applying the appropriate security controls and measures.
Security planning: This task involves defining the security objectives and requirements of the system, identifying the roles and responsibilities of the security stakeholders, and developing and documenting the security plan and policy.
Security implementation: This task involves implementing and enforcing the security controls and measures for the system, according to the security plan and policy, and ensuring the security functionality and compatibility of the system.
Security assessment: This task involves evaluating and testing the security effectiveness and compliance of the system, using various techniques and tools, such as audits, reviews, scans, or penetration tests, and identifying and reporting any security weaknesses or gaps.
Security authorization: This task involves reviewing and approving the security assessment results and recommendations, and granting or denying the authorization for the system operation and maintenance, based on the risk and impact analysis and the security objectives and requirements.
Security monitoring: This task involves monitoring and updating the security status and activities of the system, using various methods and tools, such as logs, alerts, or reports, and addressing and resolving any security issues or changes.
The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in the system acquisition and development phase of the SDLC, because it can ensure that the system design and development are consistent and compliant with the security objectives and requirements, and that the system changes are controlled and documented. Configuration management and control is a process that involves establishing and maintaining the baseline and the inventory of the system components and resources, such as hardware, software, data, or documentation, and tracking and recording any modifications or updates to the system components and resources, using various techniques and tools, such as version control, change control, or configuration audits. Configuration management and control can provide several benefits, such as:
Improving the quality and security of the system design and development by identifying and addressing any errors or inconsistencies
Enhancing the performance and efficiency of the system design and development by optimizing the use and allocation of the system components and resources
Increasing the compliance and alignment of the system design and development with the security objectives and requirements by applying and enforcing the security controls and measures
Facilitating the monitoring and improvement of the system design and development by providing the evidence and information for the security assessment and authorization
The other options are not the phases of the SDLC that incorporate the configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process, but rather phases that involve other tasks of the certification and accreditation process. System operations and maintenance is a phase of the SDLC that incorporates the security monitoring task of the certification and accreditation process, because it can ensure that the system operation and maintenance are consistent and compliant with the security objectives and requirements, and that the system security is updated and improved. System initiation is a phase of the SDLC that incorporates the security categorization and security planning tasks of the certification and accreditation process, because it can ensure that the system scope and objectives are defined and aligned with the security objectives and requirements, and that the security plan and policy are developed and documented. System implementation is a phase of the SDLC that incorporates the security assessment and security authorization tasks of the certification and accreditation process, because it can ensure that the system deployment and installation are evaluated and verified for the security effectiveness and compliance, and that the system operation and maintenance are authorized and approved based on the risk and impact analysis and the security objectives and requirements.
When in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) MUST software security functional requirements be defined?
After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed
After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins
After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins
After the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed
The Answer Is:
DExplanation:
Software security functional requirements must be defined after the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC). The SDLC is a process that involves planning, designing, developing, testing, deploying, operating, and maintaining a system, using various models and methodologies, such as waterfall, spiral, agile, or DevSecOps. The SDLC can be divided into several phases, each with its own objectives and activities, such as:
System initiation: This phase involves defining the scope, purpose, and objectives of the system, identifying the stakeholders and their needs and expectations, and establishing the project plan and budget.
System acquisition and development: This phase involves designing the architecture and components of the system, selecting and procuring the hardware and software resources, developing and coding the system functionality and features, and integrating and testing the system modules and interfaces.
System implementation: This phase involves deploying and installing the system to the production environment, migrating and converting the data and applications from the legacy system, training and educating the users and staff on the system operation and maintenance, and evaluating and validating the system performance and effectiveness.
System operations and maintenance: This phase involves operating and monitoring the system functionality and availability, maintaining and updating the system hardware and software, resolving and troubleshooting any issues or problems, and enhancing and optimizing the system features and capabilities.
Software security functional requirements are the specific and measurable security features and capabilities that the system must provide to meet the security objectives and requirements. Software security functional requirements are derived from the business functional analysis and the data security categorization, which are two tasks that are performed in the system initiation phase of the SDLC. The business functional analysis is the process of identifying and documenting the business functions and processes that the system must support and enable, such as the inputs, outputs, workflows, and tasks. The data security categorization is the process of determining the security level and impact of the system and its data, based on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability criteria, and applying the appropriate security controls and measures. Software security functional requirements must be defined after the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed, because they can ensure that the system design and development are consistent and compliant with the security objectives and requirements, and that the system security is aligned and integrated with the business functions and processes.
The other options are not the phases of the SDLC when the software security functional requirements must be defined, but rather phases that involve other tasks or activities related to the system design and development. After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed is not the phase when the software security functional requirements must be defined, but rather the phase when the system architecture and components are designed, based on the system scope and objectives, and the data security categorization is verified and validated. After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins is not the phase when the software security functional requirements must be defined, but rather the phase when the system design and components are evaluated and tested for the security effectiveness and compliance, and the system detailed design is developed, based on the system architecture and components. After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins is not the phase when the software security functional requirements must be defined, but rather the phase when the system architecture and components are designed, based on the system scope and objectives, and the data security categorization is initiated and planned.
Which of the following roles is responsible for ensuring that important datasets are developed, maintained, and are accessible within their defined specifications?
Data Reviewer
Data User
Data Custodian
Data Owner
The Answer Is:
CExplanation:
The data custodian is the role that is responsible for ensuring that important datasets are developed, maintained, and are accessible within their defined specifications. The data custodian is the person or entity that implements the security controls and procedures for the data, as defined by the data owner. The data custodian is also responsible for performing the technical tasks related to the data, such as backup, recovery, archiving, encryption, deletion, and auditing. The data custodian should ensure that the data is available, reliable, and secure, and that the data quality and integrity are preserved. The data reviewer, the data user, and the data owner are not the roles that are responsible for ensuring that important datasets are developed, maintained, and are accessible within their defined specifications. The data reviewer is the person or entity that verifies the accuracy, completeness, and validity of the data, and provides feedback or recommendations for improvement. The data user is the person or entity that accesses, uses, or benefits from the data, and may have different levels of permissions or restrictions depending on their role or function. The data owner is the person or entity that has the ultimate authority and responsibility over the data, and defines the security requirements and policies for the data. References:
1 (Domain 1: Security and Risk Management, Objective 1.5: Understand and apply concepts of data governance)
2 (Chapter 1: Security and Risk Management, Section 1.5.3: Data Governance)
Which of the following outsourcing agreement provisions has the HIGHEST priority from a security operations perspective?
Conditions to prevent the use of subcontractors
Terms for contract renegotiation in case of disaster
Escalation process for problem resolution during incidents
Root cause analysis for application performance issue
The Answer Is:
CExplanation:
An escalation process for problem resolution during incidents is a provision that defines how to escalate and resolve issues that arise during security incidents, such as breaches, attacks, or disruptions. An escalation process is a high priority from a security operations perspective, as it can help to minimize the impact and duration of the incidents, as well as to coordinate the response and recovery efforts among the involved parties. An escalation process may include the following elements: the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team, the communication channels and methods, the criteria and thresholds for escalation, the escalation levels and procedures, the escalation matrix and contacts, and the escalation reporting and feedback. The other options are not as high priority as an escalation process for problem resolution during incidents, from a security operations perspective. Conditions to prevent the use of subcontractors are provisions that restrict the outsourcing provider from delegating or transferring any of its obligations or services to third parties, without the consent of the outsourcing customer. These conditions are important to ensure the quality and security of the outsourced services, as well as to avoid the risk of unauthorized access or disclosure of the customer’s data or systems by the subcontractors. However, these conditions are more relevant from a contract management or vendor management perspective, rather than a security operations perspective. Terms for contract renegotiation in case of disaster are provisions that specify the conditions and procedures for modifying or terminating the outsourcing contract, in the event of a disaster or disruption that affects the outsourcing provider or the customer. These terms are important to ensure the continuity and recovery of the outsourced services, as well as to protect the rights and interests of both parties. However, these terms are more relevant from a business continuity or disaster recovery perspective, rather than a security operations perspective. Root cause analysis for application performance issue is a process that identifies and eliminates the underlying causes of a problem that affects the functionality or quality of an application, such as a bug, a defect, an error, or a failure. Root cause analysis is important to improve the performance and reliability of the application, as well as to prevent the recurrence of the problem. However, root cause analysis is more relevant from a software development or quality assurance perspective, rather than a security operations perspective. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7: Security Operations, pp. 513-514, 520-521; Free daily CISSP practice questions | CISSP, CISM, and CC training by, Question 3