NY-Life-Accident-and-Health Insurance Licensing New York Life, Accident and Health Insurance Agent/Broker Examination Series 17-55 Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

In a group life insurance plan , coverage is generally issued to an employer, association, or other eligible group under a master contract , while each insured member receives a certificate of insurance describing their coverage. Group plans also commonly include probationary or eligibility periods , especially for newly hired employees, before coverage becomes effective. These are all normal characteristics of group life insurance.

The feature that is not characteristic is individual underwriting . One of the defining advantages of group life insurance is that coverage is typically written on a group basis rather than an individual risk basis . Because the insurer spreads the risk across many covered members, medical exams and extensive personal underwriting are usually not required for each participant, particularly when they enroll during the initial eligibility period. Although evidence of insurability may sometimes be required for late enrollees or for amounts above guaranteed issue limits, the plan itself is not built around individual underwriting as a standard feature. For that reason, C. Individual underwriting is the correct answer.

The correct answer is A. the greater of the accumulated cash value or the total premiums paid. An annuity contract operates in two phases: the accumulation phase , during which premiums are paid and funds grow tax-deferred, and the annuitization phase , when income payments begin. If the annuitant dies during the accumulation phase—before income payments start—the contract typically provides a death benefit payable to the beneficiary.

Under standard annuity provisions taught in life insurance licensing materials, the death benefit during the accumulation period is generally defined as the greater of the annuity’s accumulated value (cash value) or the total premiums paid into the contract , minus any withdrawals or policy charges that may apply. This feature protects the contract owner’s investment by ensuring that the beneficiary will receive at least the value of the premiums contributed or the current accumulated value if it has grown higher.

The other options are incorrect. The beneficiary does not receive the lesser amount, the annuity does not terminate with no value, and the beneficiary does not receive both amounts combined. Therefore, the correct answer is A .

This situation describes concurrent review , a type of utilization management performed while the insured is actively receiving care , such as during an inpatient hospital stay. In concurrent review, the insurer (or its utilization review organization) monitors the ongoing treatment plan to confirm that services remain medically necessary , appropriate in intensity, and consistent with expected treatment timelines (for example, whether continued hospitalization is justified or whether discharge planning is appropriate). This differs from precertification (prior authorization) , which occurs before a service is provided to approve planned hospitalization, procedures, or certain high-cost services. It also differs from claims adjudication , which is the process of evaluating a submitted claim after services are rendered to determine payable benefits under the policy (applying deductibles, coinsurance, exclusions, and coverage limits). “Benefit checking” is not the standard term used for this managed care function. Because the question emphasizes monitoring care “in the hospital” and ensuring it proceeds according to schedule during the stay, the best match is concurrent review .

A single premium cash value life insurance policy is a form of permanent insurance that is fully funded with one lump-sum premium payment at the time of purchase. After that single payment is made, the policy is considered paid-up , meaning no additional premiums are required to keep the coverage in force for the policy’s duration (as long as no loans/withdrawals or other actions cause lapse). Because it is permanent insurance, it is designed to build cash value , and the death benefit remains in effect subject to the contract terms.

Option B is incorrect because “only one premium without evidence of insurability” describes a guaranteed insurability-type concept, not single premium funding; single premium policies still require underwriting at issue. Option C describes a waiver of premium benefit (typically waiving premiums during disability), not a single premium policy. Option D describes an annual premium mode (payment frequency), not a one-time premium. Therefore, the best description is that it requires only one payment to make the policy paid up.

A Section 457 Deferred Compensation Plan is a type of retirement savings program established under Section 457 of the Internal Revenue Code. It is primarily designed for employees of state and local governments , including workers employed by states, counties, cities, and municipalities , as well as certain governmental agencies. These plans allow employees to defer a portion of their salary into a retirement account on a pre-tax basis , meaning the contributions are not included in taxable income until the funds are withdrawn, usually during retirement.

Section 457 plans are similar in concept to other tax-deferred retirement plans such as 401(k) or 403(b) plans, but they are specifically intended for public sector employees . One of the distinctive features of a governmental 457 plan is that withdrawals can often be taken without the early withdrawal penalty typically applied before age 59½ , provided the participant separates from service.

Options such as sole proprietorships or religious organizations typically use other retirement arrangements (like SEP, SIMPLE IRA, or 403(b) plans ). Therefore, the correct answer is that Section 457 plans are intended for employees of states, counties, or municipalities .

The correct answer is Fixed . A fixed annuity guarantees a level benefit payment because the insurer promises to pay a stated amount or to credit a guaranteed rate of interest, which produces predictable and stable income payments. This makes fixed annuities especially suitable for individuals who want security, stability, and certainty of income , particularly during retirement.

In contrast, a variable annuity does not guarantee level payments because its benefits fluctuate based on the performance of the underlying investment accounts, usually separate accounts invested in securities. As investment results rise or fall, the annuity payment amount can increase or decrease. “Universal” is not the standard annuity classification used to describe guaranteed level income payments, and “Limited Life” is not a recognized annuity type for this purpose.

This question tests the distinction between guaranteed income and market-dependent income . In life insurance and annuity licensing materials, fixed annuities are consistently associated with guaranteed principal, guaranteed interest, and predictable benefit payments . Therefore, when asked which type of annuity guarantees a level benefit payment, the correct and expected answer is D. Fixed .

Term life insurance is temporary protection designed to provide a death benefit only if death occurs during a stated “term” (such as 10, 20, or 30 years). This is the core distinction from permanent life insurance, which is intended to last for the insured’s lifetime (to age 100/121 depending on the policy) as long as required premiums are paid. Term insurance typically offers the largest face amount for the lowest initial premium because it is focused on pure death benefit protection and generally does not build cash value . By contrast, permanent policies (whole life, universal life) combine insurance protection with cash value accumulation and are structured for long-duration coverage. Option A is incorrect because term life usually accumulates no cash value (not “a smaller cash value”). Option B is incorrect because term often has a shorter premium-paying horizon aligned to the term period. Option D is not “most often” true: some term policies are renewable, but renewability depends on contract provisions and is not automatic in all cases.

The correct answer is C. net amount. In life insurance, the difference between a policy’s face amount and its cash value is commonly referred to in licensing terminology as the net amount at risk , and exam questions often shorten that phrase to net amount . This represents the portion of the death benefit the insurer is actually risking at a given time because the cash value already belongs to the policyowner and offsets part of the insurer’s exposure. As cash value increases over the life of a permanent policy, the insurer’s net amount at risk generally decreases. NAIC life insurance regulatory material describes the amount subtracted from the policy’s face value to determine the net amount at risk , which is consistent with this concept. ( NAIC )

The other options are not correct insurance terms for this relationship. Market value applies more to investments or securities. Assumed amount is not the standard term used in life insurance contract analysis. Term value is also incorrect because term insurance generally does not build cash value. Therefore, the recognized answer is net amount , meaning the policy’s net amount at risk . ( NAIC )

Risk sharing is a risk management technique in which a group combines resources so that losses experienced by a few are spread across many. The classic insurance concept behind this is pooling : each participant contributes money to a common fund, and the fund is used to pay covered losses as they occur. Option B describes this directly— pooling money to cover malpractice exposures —because malpractice losses can be unpredictable and potentially severe, and sharing them across a group reduces the financial impact on any one member.

The other options describe different risk management methods. Option A (not purchasing a car) is risk avoidance —eliminating the exposure entirely. Option C (installing sprinklers) is risk reduction/loss control , lowering the frequency or severity of loss. Option D (purchasing an insurance policy) is primarily risk transfer , shifting the financial consequences of specified losses to an insurer in exchange for a premium. Because only option B reflects spreading losses among a group through pooling, it is the best example of risk sharing .

The correct answer is C. Gains are taxed only on distribution. One of the major advantages of annuities is their tax-deferred growth . During the accumulation phase , the interest, dividends, or investment gains generated inside the annuity contract are not taxed annually . Instead, taxation is deferred until the policyholder begins taking withdrawals or receiving annuity payments. At that time, the portion of the payment representing earnings or gains becomes taxable as ordinary income. This tax deferral allows the funds inside the annuity to grow more efficiently because earnings can continue to compound without being reduced by yearly taxation.

The other options are incorrect. A is incorrect because annuity earnings are not tax deductible each year. B is also incorrect because earnings are not partially tax-exempt; rather, they are tax-deferred until distribution. D is incorrect because not all distributions are fully taxable. When annuity payments begin, part of each payment represents a return of the owner ' s principal (cost basis) and is not taxed, while only the earnings portion is subject to income tax. Therefore, the favorable tax treatment of annuities is that taxation on gains occurs only when distributions are taken

When a medical provider does not have a contract or payment agreement with an insurer (often called a nonparticipating or out-of-network provider), the insurer generally does not pay based on a negotiated contract rate. Instead, reimbursement is commonly determined using a UCR methodology— Usual, Customary, and Reasonable charges. “Usual” refers to the typical charge a provider makes for a service; “customary” reflects what providers in the same geographic area commonly charge for that service; and “reasonable” considers whether the charge is appropriate given the circumstances and local market norms. Under many major medical plans, the insurer pays a percentage of the UCR amount (subject to deductibles and coinsurance), and the patient may be responsible for any difference between the provider’s billed charge and the insurer’s allowed UCR amount (often referred to as balance billing , where permitted).

The other choices do not match standard insurer payment terminology: “absolute” and “relative” fee are not the typical reimbursement basis described for noncontracted providers, and “non-scheduled plan customary fee” is not the recognized standard method used in these plan provisions.

The correct answer is A. concealment . In insurance, concealment means an applicant or insured intentionally fails to disclose a material fact that should be made known to the insurer. A material fact is any information that would affect the insurer’s decision to issue the policy, set the premium, or determine the scope of coverage. Because insurers rely on full and truthful disclosure during underwriting, concealment can be treated as a form of misrepresentation and may give the insurer grounds to deny a claim or rescind the policy, depending on the circumstances and applicable law.

The other choices do not match this definition. Estoppel is a legal principle that can prevent a party from asserting a right when its own actions have caused another to rely to their detriment. Remission is not the standard insurance term for withholding information in underwriting. Twisting is an unfair trade practice involving inducing a policyowner to replace existing insurance using misleading comparisons. Since the question asks specifically about intentionally withholding information from an insurer, the correct term is concealment .

Stranger-originated life insurance (STOLI) arrangements violate the fundamental legal requirement of insurable interest . In life insurance, the policyowner must have a legitimate interest in the continued life of the insured at the time the policy is issued. This usually exists when there is a close family relationship or a lawful economic interest, such as a business relationship where the death of the insured would cause financial loss. STOLI attempts to evade this rule by having a third party with no true insurable interest initiate or finance a policy for the purpose of benefiting from the insured’s death.

That is why C. Insurable interest is the correct answer. The problem with STOLI is not trust ownership itself, since trusts may be used legally in life insurance planning when properly established. It is also not primarily about rescission rights or commission sharing. The key statutory violation is that the policy is effectively procured by or for someone who lacks a lawful interest in the insured’s continued life. New York licensing materials treat this as contrary to public policy and inconsistent with lawful life insurance underwriting standards.

The correct answer is 6 months . In life insurance, backdating an application or policy means using an earlier policy date than the actual date of application or issue. This is commonly done to preserve a younger insurance age , which can result in a lower premium for the insured. The standard rule tested in life insurance licensing materials is that a life insurance policy may be backdated up to 6 months .

This rule is especially important when an applicant is close to a birthday that would place them in a higher age bracket for premium calculation. By backdating within the permitted limit, the insurer may allow the applicant to be rated at the younger age, although the applicant must usually pay premiums retroactive to the earlier effective date.

The other options are incorrect because they do not reflect the commonly tested maximum backdating period. Two weeks and three months are too short, while one year exceeds the permitted limit. For exam purposes, when asked how far a life insurance application or policy may be backdated, the recognized answer is 6 months , making Choice C the correct response.

The correct answer is adverse selection . In group life insurance, underwriting is generally based on the characteristics of the group as a whole rather than on extensive medical underwriting of each individual member. Because of this simplified underwriting approach, insurers must rely on certain group underwriting standards to protect themselves against the possibility that only those individuals who expect to need coverage most urgently will enroll. This danger is known as adverse selection .

Adverse selection occurs when people with a higher-than-average likelihood of loss are more motivated to obtain insurance than lower-risk individuals. In group life insurance, underwriting controls such as minimum participation requirements, employer contributions, eligibility rules, and actively-at-work provisions help ensure that the risk is spread across a broad base of insured persons rather than concentrated among poor risks. These requirements preserve the stability of the insurance pool and support fair premium pricing.

The other answer choices are incorrect because “risk selection” and “risk underwriting” are not the specific underwriting problem being tested, and “medical underwriting” is a process, not the danger the insurer is trying to avoid. Therefore, the correct answer is C. adverse selection .

The correct answer is A. the greater of the accumulated cash value or the total premiums paid. An annuity contract has two main phases: the accumulation phase and the annuitization (payout) phase . During the accumulation period, the annuitant contributes premiums that grow on a tax-deferred basis within the annuity. If the annuitant dies before the contract enters the payout phase, the insurer generally pays a death benefit to the named beneficiary.

In standard annuity provisions described in life insurance licensing materials, this death benefit is typically defined as the greater of the annuity’s accumulated value or the total premiums paid into the contract , often adjusted for any withdrawals. This provision protects the annuity owner’s investment by ensuring that the beneficiary receives at least the amount contributed to the contract or the current accumulated value, whichever is higher.

The other options are incorrect. The beneficiary does not receive the lesser amount, the contract does not terminate without value, and the beneficiary does not receive both amounts combined. Therefore, the correct answer is the greater of the accumulated cash value or the total premiums paid .

The correct answer is D. probation. In New York insurance regulation, the Department’s enforcement powers for insurance-law violations and fraud-related misconduct commonly include civil fines and license disciplinary action , such as suspension or revocation of an insurance producer’s license. New York Insurance Law § 2110 specifically authorizes the Superintendent to refuse to renew, suspend, or revoke a producer’s license, and DFS disciplinary action records show those sanctions being imposed in practice.

In addition, New York’s fraud enforcement materials explain that civil monetary penalties may be imposed for fraudulent insurance acts. DFS’s fraud division report states that Insurance Law § 403 authorizes the Department to levy civil penalties against individuals who commit fraudulent insurance acts.

By contrast, probation is not one of the standard penalties listed in this New York insurance-licensing/fraud context for the Department’s administrative sanctions on producers in the exam material framework. The tested distinction is that the Department may impose fines, suspension, and revocation , but not probation as the answer choice here. Therefore, the option that is not included is probation

The correct answer is D. Assigning a life settlement contract as a collateral loan. Under New York life settlement regulation, the business of life settlements generally includes activities such as soliciting, negotiating, procuring, effecting, purchasing, investing in, financing, monitoring, or otherwise dealing in life settlement contracts . These activities are regulated because they involve the transfer or acquisition of an ownership interest in a life insurance policy for compensation. Actions such as soliciting a contract from out of state , negotiating through a life settlement broker , or issuing a contract by mail all fall within the regulated business of life settlements when they are directed into or conducted in connection with New York.

By contrast, assigning a life settlement contract as collateral for a loan is not itself treated as engaging in the business of life settlements. That type of assignment is considered a financing or secured transaction involving an already existing interest, rather than the actual solicitation, negotiation, or execution of a life settlement transaction. Therefore, among the choices given, the action that is not considered the business of life settlements is assigning a life settlement contract as a collateral loan .

The correct answer is C. waive any time periods applicable to preexisting conditions to the extent that similar exclusions have been satisfied under the original policy. In long-term care insurance replacement rules, the purpose is to protect the insured from losing credit for coverage already earned under the old policy. When one long-term care policy replaces another, the replacing insurer cannot force the insured to start over on preexisting condition limitation periods that were already satisfied under the original coverage. Instead, the new policy must give credit for that prior time.

This consumer-protection rule prevents unfair duplication of waiting periods and helps ensure continuity of coverage. It applies specifically to similar exclusions or limitation periods that have already been met under the old long-term care policy. The replacement policy must recognize that satisfied time and waive the equivalent remaining portion.

The other choices are incorrect because the key legal requirement in replacement is not centered on a 45-day free-look period or a written agreement about treatment schedules. While free-look rights may exist in certain long-term care policies, that is not the specific replacement obligation being tested here. The required action is to credit previously satisfied preexisting-condition waiting periods , which makes C the correct answer.