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MA0-104 McAfee Intel Security Certified Product Specialist Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your McAfee MA0-104 Intel Security Certified Product Specialist certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 70 questions

By default, the McAfee Enterprise Security Manager (ESM) communicates with the McAfee Event Receiver (ERC) and McAfee Enterprise Log Manager (ELM) over port

A.

21.

B.

443.

C.

22.

D.

23.

Which of the following is the Primary function of the Event Receiver (ERC) in relation to the Enterprise Security Manager (ESM)?

A.

Collect and parse events before the ESM pulls them form the ERC

B.

Collect and parse the events before the receiver forwards them to the ESM

C.

Collect and store the events before they are forwarded to the ESM for parsing

D.

Collect and parse the events before forwarding them to the ELM

An organization notices an increasing number of ESM concurrent connection events. To mitigate risks related to concurrent sessions which action should the organization take?

A.

Increase the concurrent session alarm threshold

B.

Decrease the console timeout value

C.

Increase the number of the concurrent sessions allowed

D.

Customize the login page with the organization's logo

Which of the following is the name of the Dashboard View that shows correlated events for the selected Data Source?

A.

Default Summary

B.

Normalized Dashboard

C.

Incidents Dashboard

D.

Triggered Alarms

A McAfee Event Receiver (ERC) will allow for how many Correlation Data Sources to be configured?

A.

1

B.

3

C.

5

D.

10

The ESM supports five Authentication methods. The default login option uses the standard Username and Password format. Which of the following are the other four methods available?

A.

RADIUS, TACACS+, Active Directory, LDAP.

B.

Active Directory, NTLM, TACACS+, LDAP.

C.

LDAP, Active Directory, RADIUS, CAC.

D.

CAC, LDAP, RADIUS,TACACS+.

The primary function of the Application Data Monitor (ADM) appliance is to decode traffic at layer

A.

one for inspection.

B.

three for inspection.

C.

five for inspection.

D.

seven for inspection.

Which of the following are the three compression ratios available for raw logs being handled by the ELM?

A.

10:1,14:1.19:1

B.

14:1,18:1,20:1

C.

14:1,17:1.21:1

D.

14:1,17:1,20:1

The ESM database is unavailable for use during

A.

a configuration backup.

B.

a full backup.

C.

archiving of inactive partitions

D.

synchronization with the redundant ESM.

The configuration of a receiver has recently been modified and issues occur. Which command will collect historical data?

A.

htop

B.

getstatsdata

C.

snmpget

D.

df

The analyst has created a correlation rule to correlate events from Anti-Virus (AV>, Network Intrusion Prevention (NIPS) and the firewall. While reviewing just firewall events, the analyst notices a large spike in outbound Command and Control traffic, however, the correlation rule is not triggering The analyst then looks at the Network IPS and the Anti-Virus views and notices there are no alerts for this traffic. Which of the following features of NIPS and AV are most likely turned off?

A.

Alerting

B.

Heuristics

C.

Advanced Persistent Threats (APT)

D.

Automatic DAT updates

If the maximum size for the Policy Change History log is reached, which of the following happens to new entries?

A.

No new entries are added to the log.

B.

A new log file is created and the old one is archived.

C.

The oldest entries will be deleted to make way for the new entries.

D.

The newest entries will be buffered until an Administrator creates a new log file.

The fundamental purpose of the Receiver Correlation Subsystem (RCS) is

A.

to analyze data from the ESM and detect matching patterns.

B.

to collect and consolidate identical data from the ESM into a single summary event.

C.

to classify or categorize data from the Receiver into related types and sub-types.

D.

to organize, retrieve and archive data from the Receiver into the SIEM database.

When viewing the Policy Tree, what four columns are displayed within the Rules Display pane?

A.

Action, Seventy, Aggregation, Copy Packet

B.

Action, Seventy, Normalization, Copy Packet

C.

Action, Seventy, Aggregation, Drop Packet

D.

Enable, Severity, Aggregation, Copy Packet

With regard to Data Source configuration and event collection what does the acronym CEF stand for?

A.

Correlation Event Framing

B.

Common Event Format

C.

Common Event Framing

D.

Condition Event Format

The McAfee Enterprise Security Manager (ESM) system clock is set to

A.

International Date Line West.

B.

Daylight Savings Offset.

C.

Greenwich Mean Time.

D.

Geo-Location.

The McAfee SIEM solution satisfies which of the following compliance requirements?

A.

Continuous monitoring, Log retention

B.

Personally Identifiable Information (Pll) protection

C.

Payment Card Industry/ Data Security Standard {PCI/ DSS) protection

D.

Patch management automation

Where can the ESM event database archive inactive partitions?

A.

Storage on the hard disk of the ESM itself

B.

Storage on the hard disk of the backup ESM

C.

Storage on the ELM

D.

Remote storage connected to the ESM

Which of the following are the three default users defined within the Users and Groups option in the ESM properties?

A.

NGCP, POLICY, REPORT

B.

NGCP, BACKUP, REPORT

C.

ADMIN, POLICY, REPORT

D.

NGCP, SYSTEM, REPORT

Which of the following two appliances contain Event databases?

A.

ELM and REC

B.

ESM and ELM

C.

ESM and REC

D.

REC and ADM

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Total 70 questions
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