PRINCE2 PRINCE2-7-Practitioner Practice Test Questions Answers

The correct answer is C — Progress . The progress practice establishes mechanisms for comparing actual achievements with planned targets, forecasting future performance, controlling deviations, and providing appropriate information to decision-makers. At project closure, this includes reviewing overall project performance against the baselines and targets that were originally authorized.

The end project report provides the project board with a consolidated assessment of how the project performed. In this scenario, the project manager records that actual cost exceeded the budget by 10% and actual duration exceeded the planned schedule by 15%. These are direct comparisons between actual and planned performance , placing the information squarely within the progress practice.

Sharing the findings with the LOB Portfolio Director also enables experience from the LouisShopping project to support organizational learning. This does not change the primary practice being demonstrated: the information being analysed and communicated is project performance against authorized targets.

Option A concerns whether continued or completed investment was justified in terms of costs, benefits, risks, and business objectives. Option B concerns creation and maintenance of plans. Option D concerns ensuring products meet defined quality requirements. Although each may contribute information to project closure, the specific evaluation of cost and time performance belongs principally to progress .

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Progress practice; end project report; actual versus planned performance; project closure; lessons and organizational learning.

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The correct answer is B . During evaluate a work package , the team manager periodically assesses actual and forecast performance against the authorized work package and, where applicable, the team plan. This requires consideration of relevant product, quality, risk, issue, lesson, and progress information so that the current status and forecast completion can be determined accurately.

Here, the missing electrical cabling has caused the security-system installation to be forecast one week late and beyond the delegated work-package time tolerance. Because management by exception operates through delegated tolerances, the team manager cannot simply absorb a forecast breach that lies outside the authority provided by the project manager. The project manager must therefore be informed.

The checkpoint report is the normal mechanism by which the team manager reports work-package progress to the project manager. However, a forecast tolerance breach should also be brought promptly to the project manager’s attention rather than waiting passively for routine reporting.

Option A identifies only one aspect of evaluation and fails to address the forecast tolerance breach. Option C incorrectly removes evaluation responsibility from the team manager. Option D bypasses the management hierarchy: a team manager escalates work-package exceptions to the project manager , not directly to the project board.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Managing product delivery; evaluate a work package; checkpoint reports; work-package tolerances; management by exception; escalation.

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The correct mapping is Project support — B, Regeneration Officer; User assurance — D, Heritage Manager; Senior supplier — C, Chief Technology Officer .

Under the PRINCE2 organization practice, roles are allocated according to the interests represented and the responsibilities required by the project management team. Project support provides administrative and specialist support to the project manager and project management team. The Regeneration Officer is therefore the most appropriate individual among the available choices.

User assurance protects the interests of those who will use, operate, maintain, or otherwise be affected by the project products. The Heritage Manager is positioned to provide assurance concerning the heritage-related requirements represented by the senior user interest. This also aligns with the scenario’s earlier delegation of review activity concerning protection of historically significant buildings.

The senior supplier represents those responsible for providing the specialist resources and expertise necessary to design and develop the project’s products. Among the listed individuals, the Chief Technology Officer is the appropriate supplier-side representative for the specialist technology component.

The Regeneration Manager is already associated with the project manager role, while the Portfolio Director operates at the business layer and therefore would not appropriately fulfil these three project-level roles.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Organization practice; project management team; project support; project assurance; senior supplier; business, user and supplier interests.

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The correct answer is B — Appoint the project executive and manager . During starting up a project , the business layer ensures that appropriate project leadership is established and that the prospective project executive understands the mandate, organizational context, and principal business expectations attached to the proposed project.

The information described in the scenario—strategic importance to the LOB portfolio, the expectation that the project will increase business opportunities, and the required completion timeframe—is fundamental business direction. It provides context within which the executive will subsequently ensure that an appropriate project organization and initial business justification are established.

Option A occurs when the wider project management team is designed and appointed. Although role requirements and representation are addressed there, the scenario specifically concerns the initial relationship between the business layer and the prospective executive. Option C concerns deciding how the project’s products should be delivered, such as the delivery method and sourcing approach. It does not principally establish the executive’s understanding of the mandate. Option D concerns preparing the plan for the initiation stage, including the activities, resources, timescale, and controls required to perform initiation.

Therefore, clarification of the mandate and business expectations appropriately accompanies establishment of the executive and project manager roles.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Starting up a project; appoint the project executive and project manager; project mandate; business layer; initial project leadership.

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The correct answer is A . When preparing the next stage plan, the project manager must incorporate all relevant authorized changes that affect the products or work to be undertaken in the forthcoming management stage. The stage plan must represent the current authorized baseline rather than an obsolete version of what was originally intended.

The additional trees and seating have already been authorized by the project board, and the change can be incorporated without a forecast breach of overall project tolerance. The project manager should therefore reflect the additional products and activities in the stage 3 plan, revise affected product descriptions and product-register information, and determine whether corresponding elements of the project initiation documentation need updating.

Option B is incorrect because an exception plan is not required for every authorized change. Exception planning is used where agreed tolerance is forecast to be exceeded and the higher management level requests a replacement plan. The scenario explicitly states that project tolerance is not forecast to be breached. Option C incorrectly introduces mandatory re-authorization by the business layer. Option D is incorrect because preparing the next stage plan is a project manager responsibility; project assurance may independently review the resulting information but does not prepare it instead.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Managing a stage boundary; prepare the next stage plan; authorized changes; product descriptions; product register; PID maintenance; exception plans.

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