PRINCE2-7-Practitioner PRINCE2 Project Management Practitioner (Version 7) Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

The correct answer is B . During evaluate a work package , the team manager periodically assesses actual and forecast performance against the authorized work package and, where applicable, the team plan. This requires consideration of relevant product, quality, risk, issue, lesson, and progress information so that the current status and forecast completion can be determined accurately.

Here, the missing electrical cabling has caused the security-system installation to be forecast one week late and beyond the delegated work-package time tolerance. Because management by exception operates through delegated tolerances, the team manager cannot simply absorb a forecast breach that lies outside the authority provided by the project manager. The project manager must therefore be informed.

The checkpoint report is the normal mechanism by which the team manager reports work-package progress to the project manager. However, a forecast tolerance breach should also be brought promptly to the project manager’s attention rather than waiting passively for routine reporting.

Option A identifies only one aspect of evaluation and fails to address the forecast tolerance breach. Option C incorrectly removes evaluation responsibility from the team manager. Option D bypasses the management hierarchy: a team manager escalates work-package exceptions to the project manager , not directly to the project board.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Managing product delivery; evaluate a work package; checkpoint reports; work-package tolerances; management by exception; escalation.

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The correct mapping is Project support — B, Regeneration Officer; User assurance — D, Heritage Manager; Senior supplier — C, Chief Technology Officer .

Under the PRINCE2 organization practice, roles are allocated according to the interests represented and the responsibilities required by the project management team. Project support provides administrative and specialist support to the project manager and project management team. The Regeneration Officer is therefore the most appropriate individual among the available choices.

User assurance protects the interests of those who will use, operate, maintain, or otherwise be affected by the project products. The Heritage Manager is positioned to provide assurance concerning the heritage-related requirements represented by the senior user interest. This also aligns with the scenario’s earlier delegation of review activity concerning protection of historically significant buildings.

The senior supplier represents those responsible for providing the specialist resources and expertise necessary to design and develop the project’s products. Among the listed individuals, the Chief Technology Officer is the appropriate supplier-side representative for the specialist technology component.

The Regeneration Manager is already associated with the project manager role, while the Portfolio Director operates at the business layer and therefore would not appropriately fulfil these three project-level roles.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Organization practice; project management team; project support; project assurance; senior supplier; business, user and supplier interests.

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The correct answer is B — Appoint the project executive and manager . During starting up a project , the business layer ensures that appropriate project leadership is established and that the prospective project executive understands the mandate, organizational context, and principal business expectations attached to the proposed project.

The information described in the scenario—strategic importance to the LOB portfolio, the expectation that the project will increase business opportunities, and the required completion timeframe—is fundamental business direction. It provides context within which the executive will subsequently ensure that an appropriate project organization and initial business justification are established.

Option A occurs when the wider project management team is designed and appointed. Although role requirements and representation are addressed there, the scenario specifically concerns the initial relationship between the business layer and the prospective executive. Option C concerns deciding how the project’s products should be delivered, such as the delivery method and sourcing approach. It does not principally establish the executive’s understanding of the mandate. Option D concerns preparing the plan for the initiation stage, including the activities, resources, timescale, and controls required to perform initiation.

Therefore, clarification of the mandate and business expectations appropriately accompanies establishment of the executive and project manager roles.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Starting up a project; appoint the project executive and project manager; project mandate; business layer; initial project leadership.

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The correct answer is A . When preparing the next stage plan, the project manager must incorporate all relevant authorized changes that affect the products or work to be undertaken in the forthcoming management stage. The stage plan must represent the current authorized baseline rather than an obsolete version of what was originally intended.

The additional trees and seating have already been authorized by the project board, and the change can be incorporated without a forecast breach of overall project tolerance. The project manager should therefore reflect the additional products and activities in the stage 3 plan, revise affected product descriptions and product-register information, and determine whether corresponding elements of the project initiation documentation need updating.

Option B is incorrect because an exception plan is not required for every authorized change. Exception planning is used where agreed tolerance is forecast to be exceeded and the higher management level requests a replacement plan. The scenario explicitly states that project tolerance is not forecast to be breached. Option C incorrectly introduces mandatory re-authorization by the business layer. Option D is incorrect because preparing the next stage plan is a project manager responsibility; project assurance may independently review the resulting information but does not prepare it instead.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Managing a stage boundary; prepare the next stage plan; authorized changes; product descriptions; product register; PID maintenance; exception plans.

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The correct answer is A . The legislation is an external event that has already occurred : a new legal requirement now applies to people working on public-infrastructure projects. It therefore represents an issue rather than merely an uncertain future risk. Recording it in the issue register enables the project team to assess its impact and determine what action may be necessary.

The effect could be significant. Existing or planned personnel may not possess the required security clearance, which could constrain the availability of resources, delay mobilization, alter supplier arrangements, increase costs, or affect scheduled delivery. The project manager should therefore ensure the event is captured and assessed rather than waiting until every consequence is known.

Option B is incorrect because external events that affect project objectives should still be managed through the project’s agreed governance and issue-management controls. Option C would delay formal management of an event whose implications may require immediate investigation and action. Option D incorrectly assumes that externally generated issues belong exclusively to the business layer. The business may need to participate in resolving some consequences, but the project team must manage impacts on the project within its authority and escalation arrangements.

The key distinction is that an issue concerns something that has happened or is currently relevant , whereas a risk concerns uncertainty about a future event.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Issues practice; external events; issue register; issue assessment; resource impacts; risk-versus-issue distinction.

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The correct answer is C . The purpose of capture issues and risks is not merely to record information. Newly identified concerns must be considered sufficiently to determine their nature, significance, and appropriate treatment. An informal concern can subsequently prove to be a material issue or risk affecting project objectives, stakeholders, regulatory obligations, cost, schedule, or reputation.

The possibility that completed foundations have altered rainwater flow onto neighbouring property has potentially significant consequences. Planning approval does not demonstrate that this newly identified condition is harmless. The project manager should therefore assess the concern before deciding whether it can be handled informally, requires formal entry in the issue or risk register, needs specialist investigation, or demands escalation or corrective action.

Option A incorrectly treats recording as equivalent to management. A log entry provides traceability but does not establish whether further action is required. Option B similarly conflicts with effective issue and risk management because an informal route does not exempt a concern from proportionate assessment. Option D is incorrect because potentially significant matters should be raised when identified; the team manager is not required to wait for the next scheduled checkpoint report.

The essential PRINCE2 control is to capture, assess, and determine an appropriate response , rather than dismissing uncertainty solely because existing approval had previously been obtained.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Controlling a stage; capture issues and risks; project log; issue assessment; risk assessment; corrective action.

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The correct answer is C — Prepare the project plan . Product-based planning is central to preparing a reliable PRINCE2 plan. The project team begins by defining and analysing the products that must be delivered and then establishes their dependencies, activities, resource requirements, estimates, and sequence.

The workshop described in the scenario is explicitly breaking the site-preparation and foundation products into greater detail. That is a planning activity. The discovery that a more comprehensive environmental impact assessment will be necessary also affects the work required to produce the project’s products and potentially its schedule, resources, dependencies, and costs. Those implications should therefore be incorporated while preparing the project plan.

Option A concerns deciding how PRINCE2 and organizational project-management requirements will be adapted to the circumstances of LouisShopping. It is not the activity in which detailed product decomposition is performed. Option B concerns establishing the management approaches governing areas such as risk, issues, quality, commercial management, sustainability, and digital/data management. Option D uses the resulting estimates and other planning information to develop the project’s detailed justification, but the product-based planning workshop itself belongs to preparation of the project plan.

The sequence is important: detailed planning information can subsequently inform refinement of the full business case.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Initiating a project; prepare the project plan; plans practice; product-based planning; product analysis; estimates and dependencies.

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The correct answer is A — Prepare planned closure . A project can be operationally complete before all of its intended benefits have been realized. Many benefits emerge only after project products have been transferred into business-as-usual operation. Consequently, closing arrangements need to establish how outstanding benefits will subsequently be measured and reviewed.

In this scenario, the anticipated increase in business opportunities will be assessed after LouisShopping has entered operational use. The project manager therefore needs to update the relevant post-project benefit-review arrangements during prepare planned closure , identifying what is to be measured, when measurement should occur, and who will be responsible. The Head of the Portfolio Office is identified as the person who will perform that subsequent measurement.

Option B concerns obtaining confirmation that the project’s products have been accepted and that appropriate handover has occurred. Option C focuses on evaluating overall project performance and producing closure information such as the end project report and lessons. Option D is the formal request to the project board to authorize closure once the necessary closure activities have been completed.

Preparing planned closure is therefore the appropriate point to ensure that post-project measurement responsibilities remain in place after the temporary project organization is disbanded.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Closing a project; prepare planned closure; benefits management; post-project benefits reviews; operational use; business responsibility after closure.

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The correct answer is C — Project assurance . Project assurance exists to provide the project board with confidence that the project is being conducted appropriately and remains consistent with the interests represented by the board. Assurance includes reviewing whether plans remain realistic, feasible, aligned with agreed objectives, and suitable for supporting project-board decision-making.

Here, BuildyBrick has supplied new information showing that protecting historic buildings will increase the planned duration. Before relying on the revised plan, the project manager needs confidence that it remains appropriate from the perspective of both the project board and the wider business. Consulting project assurance is therefore appropriate because assurance can independently review the plan against agreed objectives, targets, tolerances, business justification, and applicable organizational requirements.

Option A is incorrect because the business layer establishes strategic direction and commissions the project rather than routinely reviewing detailed project planning changes on behalf of the board. Option B is concerned primarily with specialist product delivery at team level. Option D is plausible because the project executive represents the business interest, but the question specifically concerns checking that a revised plan meets project-board and business needs. That independent review and confidence-giving function is characteristic of project assurance.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Organization practice; project assurance; project board; project planning; business interest; initiating a project.

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The correct answer is D . In PRINCE2, an exception exists when it is forecast that an agreed tolerance will be exceeded. The critical point is that the breach does not have to have occurred already. Once the project manager forecasts that stage tolerance cannot be maintained, the matter exceeds the project manager’s delegated authority and must be escalated to the project board.

An issue report may contain detailed analysis of an issue, and the issue register can record the underlying matter. However, neither replaces the specific progress-control mechanism required when stage tolerance is forecast to be exceeded. The project manager must produce an exception report , explaining the cause of the forecast deviation, its consequences, available options, and an appropriate recommendation. The project board can then decide whether to request an exception plan or take another authorized course of action.

Option A therefore understates the governance consequence of the tolerance breach. Option B incorrectly treats the matter solely as an off-specification; the decisive factor for progress control is that an authorized stage-level tolerance is forecast to be exceeded. Option C is incorrect because the immediate escalation is from the project manager to the project board, not automatically to the portfolio office.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Progress practice; stage tolerances; exception; exception report; escalation; management by exception.

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The correct answer is D . Under the manage by stages principle, a PRINCE2 project is divided into management stages that create defined governance and decision points. The project manager manages the current authorized stage, while the project board retains control over whether the project should proceed into the next management stage.

At a stage boundary, the project manager normally provides the information required for the project board to assess performance, review the updated business case and project plan, consider risks and issues, and evaluate the next stage plan. The board can then decide whether continued investment remains justified and whether the next stage should be authorized. PeopleCert guidance describes management stages as controlled segments with review points at which continuation can be approved or stopped.

Releasing funding for stages 2 and 3 does not remove the governance requirement to reassess the project before stage 3 starts. Option A confuses the project manager’s delegated day-to-day authority within an authorized stage with authority to proceed automatically across stage boundaries. Option B concerns reporting customization rather than stage authorization. Option C incorrectly focuses on which corporate entity provides funding rather than the PRINCE2 control mechanism being tested.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Manage by stages; Managing a stage boundary; Directing a project; continued business justification; authorization of a stage.

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The correct answer is D . Under PRINCE2, the project manager is responsible for preparing stage plans , irrespective of whether most specialist delivery during a particular stage is undertaken by an external supplier. A stage plan is a management-level control document used by the project manager and project board to manage and authorize the relevant management stage.

Supplier team managers can and should contribute detailed planning information. They may prepare team plans where appropriate and provide estimates, resource requirements, dependencies, schedules, risks, and detailed information concerning their work packages. Those inputs support preparation of the stage plan but do not transfer ownership of the management-stage plan to the supplier.

Option A incorrectly equates delivery of most stage products with ownership of the stage plan. Option B introduces an unsupported distinction based on the number of suppliers involved. Option C goes even further by asserting that every external supplier should prepare the complete stage plan for the stage in which it operates. That would blur the distinction between project management control and specialist delivery responsibility.

The planning hierarchy remains important: the project manager plans and controls the management stage, while team managers plan and execute the detailed specialist work delegated through work packages.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Plans practice; stage plans; team plans; project manager responsibilities; team manager responsibilities; work packages; management versus specialist products.

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The correct answer is B . Selecting the project approach during starting up a project is intended to establish an appropriate basis for how the project will be delivered before the organization commits significant resources to initiation. The delivery method and use of external suppliers can materially influence management controls, commercial arrangements, quality, sustainability, communication, risk, and other management approaches subsequently developed during initiation.

The team has identified an uncertainty arising directly from its proposed approach: a traditional delivery model combined with external suppliers may make sustainability requirements more difficult to achieve. Recording this early in the project log is appropriate because risks, issues, lessons, and other relevant information identified during starting up should not be ignored simply because detailed management approaches have not yet been completed.

Option A is too narrow. Clarifying contractual obligations may be relevant, but it is not the primary rationale demonstrated here. Option C incorrectly suggests that a manageable risk should be deferred; early identification allows it to influence initiation planning and development of the PID. Option D creates a false choice. Sustainability expectations may indeed inform quality requirements, but an uncertainty concerning whether the delivery approach will enable those requirements to be achieved is still legitimately a risk.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Starting up a project; select the project approach; project log; early risk identification; sustainability; project initiation documentation.

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The correct answer is B — Organization . The organization practice defines the project’s structure of accountability and responsibility and ensures that the business, user, and supplier interests are appropriately represented throughout the project.

The proposed appointment concerns representation of the supplier interest on the project board . The senior supplier is accountable for ensuring that the specialist products can be designed and delivered and that suitable supplier resources, expertise, and technical capability are available. Where the supplier environment changes substantially between stages, the suitability of the project management team should be reconsidered rather than assuming that the original organizational structure must remain unchanged for the entire project.

The replacement subcontractor is expected to undertake the utilities and systems work during stage 3. It is therefore appropriate at the stage boundary to assess whether its account manager should provide senior supplier representation for the forthcoming stage.

Option A, plans, concerns what will be delivered and how, when, and by whom at the planning level, but the specific decision being described concerns project-governance representation. Option C concerns establishing and controlling product quality. Option D concerns monitoring actual and forecast performance against authorized plans and tolerances.

The scenario therefore applies the organization practice within managing a stage boundary to ensure that the governance structure remains appropriate for the next stage.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Organization practice; senior supplier; project board; supplier interest; managing a stage boundary; project organization.

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The correct answer is A . The purpose of the business case is to provide the information needed to determine whether the project represents a desirable, viable, and achievable investment. Developing that justification requires the project to evaluate credible alternatives rather than assuming that the initially proposed solution is automatically the optimum investment.

The option without the underground car park is described as credible. It is therefore appropriate for the project manager to include an investment appraisal of that option so that decision-makers can compare its costs, benefits, risks, dis-benefits, and overall value with those of the preferred solution. The main contractor’s objection does not remove the project’s responsibility to examine legitimate business alternatives; supplier preferences must not determine investment justification.

Option B is incorrect because PRINCE2 does not impose a universal requirement for customer and supplier organizations to maintain completely separate business cases. Option C incorrectly treats initial scope as immutable. During development of the business case, alternative configurations can be evaluated when this helps determine the most appropriate investment. Option D similarly assumes that one anticipated benefit—parking income—precludes examination of other options. A benefit is an input to investment appraisal, not a reason to suppress alternatives.

The scenario therefore demonstrates objective option appraisal as part of sound business justification.

PRINCE2 7 reference topics: Business case practice; business options; investment appraisal; justification; desirability, viability and achievability; initiating a project.

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