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PCCP Paloalto Networks Palo Alto Certified Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your Paloalto Networks PCCP Palo Alto Certified Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 70 questions

Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?

A.

Advanced malware

B.

Smishing

C.

Reconnaissance

D.

Denial of service

What are two capabilities of identity threat detection and response (ITDR)? (Choose two.)

A.

Securing individual devices

B.

Matching risks to signatures

C.

Scanning for excessive logins

D.

Analyzing access management logs

Which two services does a managed detection and response (MDR) solution provide? (Choose two.)

A.

Improved application development

B.

Incident impact analysis

C.

Periodic firewall updates

D.

Proactive threat hunting

Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?

A.

Sandboxing

B.

Stateless packet inspection

C.

Host intrusion prevention system (HIPS)

D.

Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR)

What differentiates SOAR from SIEM?

A.

SOAR platforms focus on analyzing network traffic.

B.

SOAR platforms integrate automated response into the investigation process.

C.

SOAR platforms collect data and send alerts.

D.

SOAR platforms filter alerts with their broader coverage of security incidents.

What are two functions of User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) data in Prisma Cloud CSPM? (Choose two.)

A.

Assessing severity levels

B.

Identifying misconfigurations

C.

Unifying cloud provider services

D.

Detecting and correlating anomalies

What role do containers play in cloud migration and application management strategies?

A.

They enable companies to use cloud-native tools and methodologies.

B.

They are used for data storage in cloud environments.

C.

They serve as a template manager for software applications and services.

D.

They are used to orchestrate virtual machines (VMs) in cloud environments.

Which action is unique to the security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) platforms?

A.

Prioritizing alerts

B.

Enhancing data collection

C.

Usingpredefined workflows

D.

Correlating incident data

When does a TLS handshake occur?

A.

Before establishing a TCP connection

B.

Only during DNS over HTTPS queries

C.

After a TCP handshake has been established

D.

Independently of HTTPS communications

What are two common lifecycle stages for an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is infiltrating a network? (Choose two.)

A.

Lateral movement

B.

Communication with covert channels

C.

Deletion of critical data

D.

Privilege escalation

What are two functions of an active monitoring system? (Choose two.)

A.

Preventing specific changes from being affected in the system

B.

Determining system health using unaltered system data

C.

Detectingmicro-services in a default configuration

D.

Using probes to establish potential load issues

What are two advantages of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)? (Choose two.)

A.

Completely isolated system

B.

Scripting of manual tasks

C.

Consistent incident handling

D.

Long-term retention of logs

What is an advantage of virtual firewalls over physical firewalls for internal segmentation when placed in a data center?

A.

They are dynamically scalable.

B.

They possess unlimited throughput capability.

C.

They are able to prevent evasive threats.

D.

They have failover capability.

Which type of system is a user entity behavior analysis (UEBA) tool?

A.

Correlating

B.

Active monitoring

C.

Archiving

D.

sandboxing

What is a reason IoT devices are more susceptible to command-and-control (C2) attacks?

A.

Decreased connection quality within a local area network

B.

Increased sharing of data through the internet

C.

Higher attack surface due to mobility

D.

Limited batten/ life preventing always-on security

Which component of the AAA framework regulates user access and permissions to resources?

A.

Authorization

B.

Allowance

C.

Accounting

D.

Authentication

Which technology grants enhanced visibility and threat prevention locally on a device?

A.

EDR

B.

IDS

C.

SIEM

D.

DLP

Which of the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) will detect zero-day malware by using inline cloud machine learning (ML) and sandboxing?

A.

DNS security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

loT security

D.

Advanced Threat Prevention

Which two processes are critical to a security information and event management (SIEM) platform? (Choose two.)

A.

Detection of threats using data analysis

B.

Automation of security deployments

C.

Ingestion of log data

D.

Prevention of cvbersecurity attacks

Which statement describes the process of application allow listing?

A.

It allows only trusted files, applications, and processes to run.

B.

It creates a set of specific applications that do not run on the system.

C.

It encrypts application data to protect the system from external threats.

D.

It allows safeuse of applications by scanningfiles for malware.

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Total 70 questions
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