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250-428 Symantec Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 14 Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your Symantec 250-428 Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 14 certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 135 questions

Which two Symantec Endpoint Protection components are used to distribute content updates? (Select two.)

A.

Group Update Provider (GUP)

B.

Shared Insight Cache Server

C.

Symantec Protection Center

D.

Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager

E.

Symantec Insight Database

Which Symantec Endpoint Protection technology blocks a downloaded program from installing browser plugins?

A.

Intrusion Prevention

B.

SONAR

C.

Tamper Protection

D.

Application and Device Control

What is the difference between a shared and non-shared policy?

A.

Shared policies can be edited and replaced for all groups and locations that use it. A non-shared policy is unique to a specific group or location.

B.

Shared policies are replicated to a Replication Partner. A non-shared policy is specific to a local SEPM site.

C.

Shared policies are used in Production. A non-shared policy is used in test and only work in Log Only mode.

D.

Shared policies are unique for a specific group and location. A nonshared policy can be edited and replaced for all groups and locations that use it.

An administrator is unknowingly trying to connect to a malicious website and download a known threat within a .rar file. All Symantec Endpoint Protection technologies are installed on the client’s system.

Drag and drop the technologies to the right side of the screen in the sequence necessary to block or detect the malicious file.

An administrator is unable to delete a location.

What is the likely cause?

A.

The location currently contains clients.

B.

Criteria is defined within the location.

C.

The administrator has client control enabled.

D.

The location is currently assigned as the default location.

In which two areas can host groups be used? (Select two.)

A.

Locations

B.

Download Insight

C.

IPS

D.

Application and Device Control

E.

Firewall

An organization recently experienced an outbreak and is conducting a health check of their environment! What Protection Technology should the SEP team enable to prevent vulnerability attacks on software?

A.

Memory Exploit Mitigation (MEM)

B.

System Lockdown

C.

Behavior Monitoring (SONAR)

D.

Host Integrity

Which setting can an administrator configure in the LiveUpdate policy?

A.

Linux Settings

B.

Frequency to download content

C.

Specific content revision to download from a Group Update Provider (GUP)

D.

Specific content policies to download

Which object in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describes the most granular level to which a policy can be assigned?

A.

Group

B.

Computer

C.

User

D.

Client

Which ports on the company firewall must an administrator open to avoid problems when connecting to Symantec Public LiveUpdate servers?

A.

25, 80, and 2967

B.

2967, 8014, and 8443

C.

21, 443, and 2967

D.

21, 80, and 443

Refer to the exhibit.

A manufacturing company runs three shifts at their Bristol Sales office. These employees currently share desktops in the B_Desktops group. The administrators need to apply different policies/configurations for each shift.

Which step should the administrator take in order to implement shift policies after switching the clients to user mode?

A.

create three shift policies for the Bristol group

B.

create a group for each shift of users in the Bristol group

C.

turn on inheritance for all groups in England

D.

turn on Active Directory integration

E.

modify the B_Desktops policy

An administrator plans to implement a multi-site Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) deployment. The administrator needs to determine whether replication is viable without having to make network firewall changes or change defaults in SEP.

Which port should the administrator verify is open on the path of communication between the two proposed sites? (Type the port number.)

A large-scale virus attack is occurring and a notification condition is configured to send an email whenever viruses infect five computers on the network. A Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator has set a one hour damper period for that notification condition.

How many notifications does the administrator receive after 30 computers are infected in two hours?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

6

D.

15

An administrator needs to configure Secure Socket Layer (SSL) communication for clients. In the httpd.conf file, located on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM), the administrator removes the hashmark (#) from the text string displayed below.

#Include conf/ssl/sslForcClients.conf<

Which two tasks must the administrator perform to complete the SSL configuration? (Select two.)

A.

edit site.properties and change the port to 443

B.

restart the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager Webserver service

C.

change the default certificates on the SEPM and reboot

D.

change the Management Server List and enable HTTPs

E.

change the port in Clients > Group > Policies > Settings > Communication Settings and force the clients to reconnect

In addition to performance improvements, which two benefits does Insight provide? (Select two.)

A.

Reputation scoring for documents

B.

Zero-day threat detection

C.

Protection against malicious java scripts

D.

False positive mitigation

E.

Blocking of malicious websites

A company has 10,000 Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) clients deployed using two Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers (SEPMs).

Which configuration is recommended to ensure that each SEPM is able to effectively handle the communications load with the SEP clients?

A.

Pull mode

B.

Push mode

C.

Server control mode

D.

Client control mode

A company has a small number of systems in their Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) group with federal mandates that AntiVirus definitions undergo a two week testing period. After being loaded on the client, the tested virus definitions must remain unchanged on the client systems until the next set of virus definitions have completed testing. All other clients must remain operational on the most recent definition sets. An internal LiveUpdate Server has been considered as too expensive to be a solution for this company.

What should be modified on the SEPM to meet this mandate?

A.

The LiveUpdate Content policy for this group should be modified to use a specific definition revision.

B.

The LiveUpdate Settings policy for this group should be modified to use an Explicit Group Update Provider.

C.

The SEPM site LiveUpdate settings should be modified so the Number of content revisions to keep is set to 14.

D.

The SEPM site LiveUpdate settings should be modified so the Number of content revisions to keep is set to 1.

Which task is unavailable for administrative accounts that authenticate using RSA SecurID Authentication?

A.

reset forgotten passwords

B.

import organizational units (OU) from Active Directory

C.

configure external logging

D.

enable Session Based Authentication with Web Services

A system running Symantec Endpoint Protection is assigned to a group with client user interface control settings set to mixed mode with Auto-Protect options set to Client. The user on the system is unable to turn off Auto-Protect.

What is the likely cause of this problem?

A.

Tamper protection is enabled.

B.

System Lockdown is enabled.

C.

Application and Device Control is configured.

D.

The padlock on the enable Auto-Protect option is locked.

What report should a SEP administrator utilize to verify that Clients are connected to the management server?

A.

Client Inventory

B.

Client Online Status

C.

Client Migration

D.

Audit report

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Total 135 questions
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