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ZTCA Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your Zscaler ZTCA Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2026, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 75 questions

Enterprises can deliver full security controls inline, without needing to decrypt traffic.

A.

True

B.

False

When connecting to internal applications, something that you manage, what is the right way to implement Zero Trust for inbound connections?

A.

Direct access to internal applications must never be allowed. Furthermore, internal applications should never be exposed to any untrusted initiator and thus must be dark. Only authorized users can connect.

B.

Allow direct access for on-site initiators and enforce authorization for remote connections.

C.

Allow direct access for connections from enterprise-managed devices and enforce authorization for unmanaged devices, on-site or remote.

D.

Only allow connections via a secure point-to-point VPN connection.

Cloud infrastructure security posture, as well as cloud infrastructure user entitlements, can help contribute to a determination of connection risk; these are typically determined via:

A.

Automated DevOps pipelines.

B.

API integrations between the Zero Trust platform and the major cloud providers.

C.

Multi-factor authentication.

D.

Premium cloud provider subscriptions.

What is the security risk inherent in creating a split tunnel VPN, where some traffic is routed over the VPN tunnel and the rest over a direct internet connection?

A.

The VPN traffic is exempted from any security policies configured on the direct internet uplink router or appliance.

B.

You no longer have the visibility required to make decisions on those traffic flows that are going directly out to the internet.

C.

A split ACL list, which means only half the rules will be enforced.

D.

An issue between the built-in client VPN agent on most modern operating systems and a third-party VPN gateway upstream.

What are the three main sections that the elements of Zero Trust are grouped into?

A.

Verify Identity and Context, Control Content and Access, and Enforce Policy.

B.

VPNs, firewalls, and legacy architectures.

C.

Castle-and-moat security architectures, with the data center and inbound DMZ being key.

D.

Routers, switches, and wireless access points.

What options are available to an enterprise whose cybersecurity solution does not provide inline content inspection?

A.

Leverage the lowest-latency path, which typically involves service chaining to send traffic to a specialized branch where a stack of firewalls is hosted on a rack.

B.

Only view the metadata of a connection, such as who is calling and where they are calling.

C.

Optimize their throughput.

D.

Leverage tremendous cost savings, since TLS/SSL connections have a per-packet premium cost associated with processing them.

Which crucial step occurs during the “Enforce Policy” stage?

A.

Connecting an initiator to internal and external applications from the Zero Trust Exchange.

B.

A handshake between the initiator and destination application.

C.

The setup of an enterprise SSO or AD server for credential validation.

D.

Verification of identity and context of the connection.

A Zero Trust policy enablement and subsequent application connection should always be permanent.

A.

True

B.

False

There are three sections that make up a successful Zero Trust architecture: (1) Verify Identity and Context, (2) Control Content and Access, and (3) ______.

A.

Integration with an SSO provider.

B.

SAML- and SCIM-based authentication for assessing posture.

C.

Enforce Policy.

D.

Data Loss Prevention.

Why have traditional networks relied on implicit trust to connect initiators to workloads?

A.

Security breaches were historically less frequent.

B.

TCP/IP, the foundation of most networks, inherently favors connectivity over trust.

C.

It was easier to create direct P2P links between all devices, providing connectivity for rapid-downloading applications like BitTorrent and file sharing.

D.

Layer 3 ACLs are sufficient for blocking untrusted initiators.

There can be different types of initiators in a Zero Trust model, including:

A.

IP addresses and port numbers.

B.

Devices, IoT/OT, and workloads.

C.

Known TCP sockets.

D.

A walled garden for limiting access to certain IPs.

Third parties that can be integrated at the point of Verifying Identity and Context in the Zero Trust process include:

A.

Open-source SIEM tools such as OSSM and the ELK Stack.

B.

IdPs (Identity Providers) such as Okta and PingFederate, which are used for SSO (Single Sign-On).

C.

Web scalers such as GCP, Azure, and AWS, where cloud workloads are typically hosted.

D.

Data center providers such as Equinix, where customer hardware is typically hosted.

Data center applications are moving to:

A.

The branch.

B.

Castle and moat type architectures.

C.

The DMZ.

D.

The cloud.

What is policy enforcement built to enable?

A.

Network access to all available applications.

B.

Blocking access to applications and the network.

C.

Granular access from the verified initiator only to the verified application, under the correct risk and content controls.

D.

Forwarding traffic on to a virtual DMZ.

What does deception as a conditional block policy allow an enterprise to do?

A.

Engage in double-extortion negotiations.

B.

Conditionally decide which access request is sent to a decoy service, not the real destination workload, thus allowing security teams insight into questionable activity.

C.

Create various policy tiers, including several quarantine VLANs.

D.

Rethink its security posture, leveraging local breakouts from branch sites so that user traffic is filtered through a secure web gateway.

Connections approved by the Zero Trust Exchange must then enable permanent network-level access for at least 30 days.

A.

True

B.

False

How are services protected in a legacy scenario when they are discoverable on the public Internet? (Select all that apply)

A.

Establishing a DMZ that would include multiple products and services.

B.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST).

C.

A large security stack including appliances that handle functions like global load balancing, firewalling, DDoS, and more.

D.

A web application firewall (WAF) for protecting against DDoS and other botnet style attacks.

To effectively access any external SaaS application managed by others, one must be securely connected through:

A.

A dynamic and effective path, ensuring beneficial experience and performance for the initiator.

B.

A hardwired network connection.

C.

A perimeter-based stateful network firewall, such as a security appliance.

D.

No means; the only access possible is via a special daemon running within the application space of the SaaS application itself.

The second part of a Zero Trust architecture after verifying identity and context is:

A.

Controlling content and access.

B.

Re-checking the SAML assertion.

C.

Enforcing policy.

D.

Microsegmentation.

In a network secured with a stack of security appliances and firewalls, what happens when people want to work from outside the network?

A.

Networks get extended using VPNs.

B.

Users simply need a reliable Wi-Fi connection.

C.

Work from outside the network is not possible.

D.

A single sign-on solution can be leveraged to accomplish this.

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Total 75 questions
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