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APM-PFQ APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your APM APM-PFQ APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 409 questions

Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?

A.

It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks.

B.

It facilitates the risk appetite.

C.

It facilitates the recording of risk responses.

D.

It facilitates the recording of risks.

5 A. --> 5 B. --> 5D --> 5F

`-->4C. --> 4E --^

The total float of activity E in the above diagram is:

A.

2

B.

1

C.

0

D.

4

Resource smoothing is used when:

A.

quality is more important than cost.

B.

quality is more important than scope.

C.

scope is more important than time.

D.

time is more important than cost.

What is the key benefit of having configuration management in the project?

A.

It allows a thorough assessment of the factors that are most likely to affect the change.

B.

It is A. means to justify to the customer variances from the original objectives.

C.

It ensures that the delivered product most closely meets the needs of the customer.

D.

It manages the impact of change to the project scope.

The project you are working on has chosen to produce an estimate using a detailed work breakdown structure (WBS). What estimating method is this approach commonly known as?

A.

Comparative estimating.

B.

Bottom-up/analytical estimating.

C.

Strategic estimating.

D.

Parametric estimating.

Configuration management can be used to control documents, information and:

A.

users.

B.

audits.

C.

stakeholders.

D.

assets.

The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

A.

identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.

B.

identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.

C.

identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.

D.

satisfy the organisation's project management process.

Quality control verifies that:

A.

the project follows appropriate processes.

B.

project outputs are delivered on time.

C.

the project follows appropriate governance.

D.

project outputs meet acceptance criteria.

Which of the following is not a key element of project scope management?

A.

Define outputs.

B.

Identify outputs.

C.

Share outputs.

D.

Control outputs

Product breakdown structures illustrate the required scope of work by a hierarchical structure itemising the:

A.

components of each product.

B.

budget of each product.

C.

benefits of each product.

D.

risks of each product.

Configuration management is best described as:

A.

control in the implementation of changes to project schedules.

B.

an organisation to review proposed changes to the project deliverables.

C.

quality control of project deliverables and documentation.

D.

creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

How should issues be prioritised?

A.

The time order in which the issues occurred.

B.

The impact on success criteria and benefits.

C.

The relative seniority of the issue owner.

D.

The relationship with A. relevant risk.

One difference between an issue and a risk is an issue:

A.

must be recorded but a risk does not.

B.

is an uncertain event but a risk is not.

C.

is a certain event but a risk is not.

D.

always affects scope but a risk does not

Which one of these categories would best represent project issues?

A.

Uncertain events that may or may not occur.

B.

Opportunities that occur through change control.

C.

Problems that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.

D.

Threats to the project which cannot be resolved by the project manager.

A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

A.

the project team.

B.

the project stakeholders.

C.

the project board.

D.

the project sponsor

Resource levelling seeks:

A.

to schedule activities within the limits of their float.

B.

to minimise the use of overtime and weekend working.

C.

not to exceed the limits of resource available.

D.

to increase the resource availability

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:

A.

to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.

B.

to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.

C.

to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.

D.

to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders

Which of the following defines the term 'issue'?

A.

A problem which is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme.

B.

A problem which occurs on a day-to-day basis which could have an immediate impact on a project.

C.

A problem which has the potential to impact on the achievement of specific project objectives.

D.

A problem which can only be resolved by a project manager and within the project team

In project management quality is best defined as:

A.

inspection, testing and measurement.

B.

reviews and audits.

C.

fitness for purpose of deliverables.

D.

professionally-bound project reports.

Stakeholder analysis supports effective stakeholder engagement by:

A.

identifying stakeholders with high levels of power and interest.

B.

ensuring stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.

C.

justifying the preferred project option to stakeholders.

D.

providing information to all stakeholders.

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Total 409 questions
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