F3 CIMA Financial Strategy Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

In CIMA F3’s coverage of short-term financing, commercial paper (CP) is identified as a very cost-effective funding source for large, high-credit-quality companies. CP is an unsecured, short-term promissory note, typically issued for periods up to 270 days, making it ideal for a 6-month funding need. Because it is issued directly into the money markets by strong credits, the interest cost is usually lower than overdrafts or short-term bank loans, which include a bank’s margin.

The scenario states that the company is large, listed, has an “excellent credit rating”, minimal default risk and already has a commercial paper programme. This matches the textbook profile of a company for which CP is the cheapest source of short-term borrowing.

Treasury bills (C) are issued by governments, not companies, so they are an investment vehicle, not a borrowing method here. Bank overdrafts (A) are flexible but generally expensive and better for fluctuating day-to-day needs. A 6-month term loan (B) tends to involve higher arrangement fees and interest margins than CP. Therefore, option D is the most cost-effective choice.

B – Securing sufficient funding for the MBO

C – The ability of the TTP management team to take over the head office functions successfully

D – The ability of the TTP management team to develop the brand and achieve the expected growth

(Constraints imposed by KKL will disappear after the buy-out, and motivation is already clearly present, so the key determinants of success are funding and the team’s capability to run and grow the business independently.)

The offer gives only a small premium over Company C’s current share price, and Company C has positive, unannounced plans for its substantial cash balances. Under good corporate-governance practice, the most appropriate response to a hostile bid is to communicate clearly with shareholders, explaining why the bid undervalues the company and why remaining independent may create more value. Changing the Articles to entrench management (B) and using a special dividend as a “poison pill” (C) are generally discouraged and may breach takeover rules; competition issues (D) are not indicated here. So A is the best option.

CIMA F3 explains that the Dividend Growth Model (DGM) is only suitable where dividends are stable, predictable, and capable of being forecast with reasonable confidence. It is therefore weak when applied to young, unlisted, high-risk companies, especially those with uncertain future cash flows.

A. No established dividend payment pattern – ✔ Correct

Company B has made losses in its first three years and has not paid dividends. CIMA F3 explicitly states that the dividend growth model is unsuitable where there is no dividend history, because the model relies on extrapolating future dividends from past patterns.

B. Uses future projected dividends – ✘ Incorrect

This is not a weakness, but a fundamental feature of the dividend growth model. All valuation models are forward-looking, and CIMA F3 does not consider this a limitation.

C. Growth rate difficult to determine – ✔ Correct

The business operates in a unique, high-risk sector, and future earnings and dividends are highly uncertain. CIMA F3 highlights that the DGM is extremely sensitive to the assumed growth rate, making it unreliable when growth cannot be estimated with confidence.

D. Time value of money ignored – ✘ Incorrect

The dividend growth model explicitly discounts future dividends, meaning it fully incorporates the time value of money, a core principle taught in F3.

E. Cost of capital difficult to estimate – ✔ Correct

As an unlisted company, Company B has no observable beta or market data. CIMA F3 stresses that estimating the cost of equity for private, high-risk businesses is problematic, reducing the reliability of DGM outputs.

A buyback is appropriate when the company has a one-off cash surplus and no good investment opportunities.

The most appropriate swap is to receive fixed and pay floating on $50 million of the new debt.

Answer: D. Receive fixed pay floating interest rate swap for $50 million.

Strategic reasons for a horizontal acquisition (same industry/level of value chain):

A Reduction of risk by building a larger portfolio – broader product / customer base in the same industry can reduce business risk → strategic.

C To achieve economies of scale – classic horizontal motive (sharing overheads, volume discounts, etc.).

E Reduction of competition – by acquiring a rival, the combined firm increases market power.

B is a financial motive (undervalued target), and D is a vertical integration motive.

Answer: A, C, E

Dividend Valuation Model (Gordon growth).

EPS = $1.00

Payout ratio = 40% → D0=0.40D_0 = 0.40D0​=0.40

Growth g=2%=0.02g = 2\% = 0.02g=2%=0.02

Cost of equity ke=12%=0.12k_e = 12\% = 0.12ke​=12%=0.12

Use:

P0=D1ke−g=D0(1+g)ke−gP_0 = \frac{D_1}{k_e - g} = \frac{D_0(1+g)}{k_e - g}P0​=ke​−gD1​​=ke​−gD0​(1+g)​ D1=0.40×1.02=0.408D_1 = 0.40 \times 1.02 = 0.408D1​=0.40×1.02=0.408 P0=0.4080.12−0.02=0.4080.10=4.08P_0 = \frac{0.408}{0.12 - 0.02} = \frac{0.408}{0.10} = 4.08P0​=0.12−0.020.408​=0.100.408​=4.08

Answer: A. $4.08

The market yield of 8% is a before-tax return to investors. For the company, interest payments reduce taxable profit, so the after-tax cost of debt is:

Cost of debt=Yield×(1−tax rate)\text{Cost of debt} = \text{Yield} \times (1 - \text{tax rate})Cost of debt=Yield×(1−tax rate)

This makes the company’s cost of debt lower than the 8% market yield.

In lease vs buy decisions, the relevant risk is essentially that of secured debt, and the cash flows (lease payments, tax shields, loan repayments) are after tax. Therefore, you discount incremental cash flows at the after-tax cost of borrowing, not WACC or cost of equity.

Verified Answer: = B

This is exactly what statement B describes: “Dividends are paid only if no further positive NPV projects are available.” Under this policy, if the firm has many profitable projects, dividends may be low or even zero; if investment opportunities are scarce, dividends may be higher because more earnings are surplus.

Statement A is too vague: all companies must cover operational needs before paying dividends, so that does not uniquely describe a residual policy.

Statement C describes an extreme retention policy where all earnings are reinvested, which is not the same as residual dividends (where some surplus can be paid out).

Statement D refers to a stable dividend policy, where a constant or smoothly growing dividend per share is targeted, regardless of short-term earnings volatility.

Therefore, the best description of a residual dividend policy in F3 terms is B.

A – True: listed companies face more onerous reporting and disclosure.

B – True: flotation planning must allow for issue/underwriting costs when deciding how much capital to raise.

C – True: listing can enhance reputation and credit standing, often improving supplier terms.

D – False: increased scrutiny usually reassures investors.

E – False: a company must become/remain a public company to list, not re-register as private.

Answer (Q118): A, B, C

Under CIMA F3 (Financial Strategy), sensitivity of operating profit to exchange-rate movements is assessed using transaction exposure: where revenues/costs are denominated in a foreign currency, the home-currency value of those cash flows changes when the exchange rate moves. Because all four companies have the same total revenue and cost levels in K$, the company whose net EUR cash flow is largest (in absolute terms) will have the greatest potential impact on operating profit growth when the EUR/K$ rate changes.

Treat exports as EUR inflows and imports as EUR outflows. Compute each company’s net EUR position:

Company A: EUR exports 20 − EUR imports 10 = +10 (net EUR receivable)

Company B: EUR exports 18 − EUR imports 0 = +18 (net EUR receivable)

Company C: EUR exports 21 − EUR imports 25 = −4 (net EUR payable)

Company D: EUR exports 0 − EUR imports 15 = −15 (net EUR payable)

Now compare absolute exposures: |+10|, |+18|, |−4|, |−15| ⇒ largest is 18 for Company B. Therefore, Company B’s operating profit (and hence its year-on-year growth objective) is most sensitive to movements in the EUR/K$ exchange rate, because the K$ value of its EUR-denominated net inflows will vary the most as rates change.

Reasoning:

A share exchange allows Company B’s shareholders to stay invested and participate in the future gains (synergies, growth) of the combined business.

A is wrong: cash offers are what “realise” an investment and crystallise a capital gain.

B is wrong: a share exchange introduces foreign currency exposure (to A$), whereas a cash offer in B$ does not.

C is wrong: Company B is in the older, more established market, so it is more likely that market is efficient, not Company A’s.

So D is the correct explanation.

C – Correct: only valuing three years of forecast cash flows ignores the continuing value of the business, so the valuation is understated.

D – Correct: based on typical CIMA F3 treatment, the forecast FX path should reflect expected weakening of the foreign currency (often due to higher inflation), but the assistant’s rates instead imply a strengthening B$, so the FX forecasts are inconsistent.

E – Correct: the assistant has effectively valued the business (entity value) by discounting cash flows to all providers of finance. To arrive at equity value, the B$5m of debt should be deducted.

A is incorrect because multiplying by an exchange rate quoted as AS per B$ is the right approach. B is incorrect because cash flows to all investors are appropriately discounted at WACC, not at the cost of equity.

Most appropriate is asset-based valuation because RRR is unlisted, has just made a loss and pays dividends only occasionally. Earnings- and dividend-based models (P/E, earnings yield, DVM) rely on stable, positive earnings or dividends, which RRR does not currently have, so valuing the tangible and identifiable intangible assets is more reliable.

Current PBIT = $25m

Existing debt = $60m at 5% → interest = 0.05 × 60 = $3m

Current interest cover = 25 / 3 = 8.3 times (as stated).

New borrowing: $20m at 10% → extra interest = 0.10 × 20 = $2m

Total interest after borrowing = 3 + 2 = $5m

PBIT in first year is unchanged at $25m, so:

New interest cover=255=5 times\text{New interest cover} = \frac{25}{5} = 5 \text{ times}New interest cover=525​=5 times

Loan covenant requires minimum cover of 4 times. New cover (5x) is above this, so covenant is not breached.

Correct answer: D – Interest cover would reduce to 5 times and the covenant would NOT be breached.

Use CAPM:

10%=1%+β(7%−1%)⇒0.10=0.01+0.06β⇒β=0.09/0.06=1.510\% = 1\% + \beta(7\% - 1\%) \Rightarrow 0.10 = 0.01 + 0.06\beta \Rightarrow \beta = 0.09/0.06 = 1.510%=1%+β(7%−1%)⇒0.10=0.01+0.06β⇒β=0.09/0.06=1.5.

Beta > 1 ⇒ higher risk than the market.

Answer: A. It has greater risk than the average market risk.