ICWIM CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Know Your Customer (KYC)

A regulatory process requiring firms to collect sufficient information about a client to ensure advice is appropriate.

It involves understanding the client’s financial situation, goals, and risk tolerance.

Why the Answer is D

Establishing sufficient client details is the essence of KYC. It ensures compliance with regulations and prevents mis-selling.

Why Other Options are Incorrect

A. Suitability and affordability: Part of KYC but does not encompass all aspects.

B. Attitude to risk: A component of KYC but not the full procedure.

C. Status disclosure: Refers to informing the client about the advisor’s regulatory status, not client profiling.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Regulatory Compliance: Details KYC as a cornerstone of financial advice.

FCA Guidelines: KYC is a mandatory process in the UK’s financial services.

ReferencesThus, the correct answer is D. Following know your customer procedures.

Global Currency Trading

The US dollar dominates the foreign exchange market due to its status as the global reserve currency.

It is heavily used in international trade, financial transactions, and as a benchmark currency.

Market Share

The US dollar is involved in approximately 88% of all forex trades.

Other currencies like the euro, Japanese yen, and British pound have significant market shares but are far behind the US dollar.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Global Financial Markets: Highlights the US dollar as the most traded currency.

Bank for International Settlements (BIS) Forex Market Surveys: Confirms trading dominance of the US dollar.

References

Minimum Efficient Scale:

This is the point where a company achieves the lowest average cost per unit due to economies of scale.

Once this level is reached, the firm can afford to lower prices to remain competitive and expand market share.

Elimination of Other Options:

A: Halting expansion would waste the cost advantages achieved.

B: Accelerating output expansion could lead to diseconomies of scale.

C: Increasing unit prices is counterintuitive at this stage.

References:

ICWIM Module 3: Coverage of cost structures and the theory of the firm.

Interest Cover Ratio Defined

This ratio measures a company’s ability to meet its interest obligations with its operating earnings.

Formula: Interest Cover Ratio=Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT)Interest Expense\text{Interest Cover Ratio} = \frac{\text{Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT)}}{\text{Interest Expense}}Interest Cover Ratio=Interest ExpenseEarnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT)​

Why the Answer is A

A high interest cover ratio indicates strong debt-servicing capacity, which is crucial for investors assessing financial stability.

Why Other Options are Incorrect

B. Interest rate: The ratio does not indicate the interest rate being paid.

C. Debt-to-equity: Refers to leverage, not interest coverage.

D. Liquid cash for dividends: Unrelated to interest coverage.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Financial Ratios: Covers interest cover as a debt-servicing measure.

Corporate Finance Principles: Discusses its importance for creditworthiness.

References

Risk-Free Rate

The rate of return on an investment with virtually no risk of financial loss.

Short-dated government bonds are considered risk-free because governments, especially in developed economies, are deemed highly unlikely to default.

Why the Answer is A

Short-dated bonds minimize risks associated with duration (interest rate risk).

Governments can typically print money or increase taxes to meet debt obligations, reducing default risk.

Why Other Options are Incorrect

B. Without risk: Investors still face inflation risk and currency risk.

C. Free from all risks: No investment is completely risk-free; risk is minimized, not eliminated.

D. No tracking error: Irrelevant to the definition of a risk-free rate.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Risk Management: Defines the risk-free rate and its attributes.

Economic Theory: Short-dated government bonds as benchmarks for risk-free rates.

ReferencesThus, the correct answer is A. Governments are considered unlikely to default.

Performance attribution analysis evaluates the performance of a portfolio by breaking it into components attributed to specific investment decisions. These include:

Asset Allocation: The decision on the proportion of the portfolio allocated to different asset classes (e.g., stocks, bonds).

Sector Choice: Selecting specific sectors (e.g., technology, healthcare) within asset classes.

Security Selection: Choosing individual securities within the selected sectors.

Risk analysis, while critical for investment management, is not typically part of standard performance attribution frameworks.

References:

International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Portfolio performance evaluation section.

Standard attribution models: Brinson, Hood, and Beebower model widely used in performance attribution.

Market risk, also known as systematic risk, affects the entire market and cannot be eliminated through diversification. Examples include economic recessions, geopolitical events, or market-wide changes in interest rates.

Currency risk (A): Can be diversified through exposure to multiple currencies.

Credit risk (B): Can be mitigated by spreading exposure across various credit profiles.

Liquidity risk (C): Can be addressed by diversifying into liquid assets.

References:

International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Types of risk and strategies to mitigate them.

Modern Portfolio Theory and the distinction between systematic and unsystematic risk.

Long Futures Contract Defined

A long futures contract represents a commitment to buy an underlying asset at a set price on a future date.

Closing Out the Position

If the holder sells the contract before expiry, they are said to close out the position, effectively negating their obligation to take delivery of the underlying asset.

Why the Answer is B

Selling ahead of expiry removes the obligation, hence closing the position.

Why Other Options are Incorrect

A. Exercised: Applies to options, not futures.

C. Taken delivery: Happens only if the contract is held to maturity.

D. Delivered: Applies to the short position, not the long holder.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Derivatives: Explains closing out futures contracts.

Futures Market Principles: Discusses position management in futures trading.

References

Key Person Protection:

This insurance protects a business against financial loss if a critical employee (e.g., founder, CEO) becomes incapacitated or dies.

It is designed to mitigate reliance on essential individuals whose absence would disrupt operations.

Elimination of Other Options:

B: Size of the business is not the determining factor.

C: Significant customers are protected under other insurance (e.g., credit insurance).

D: Seasonal profits do not relate to key person risk.

References:

ICWIM Module 5: Focus on business risk management and insurance needs.

Price of Closed-Ended Investment Companies:

These companies issue a fixed number of shares. Prices can trade at a premium or discount to NAV based on market demand and supply for their shares.

Strong demand increases prices above NAV (premium), while weak demand decreases prices below NAV (discount).

Elimination of Other Options:

A: Charges affect long-term returns but not immediate pricing.

B: Tax status is generally consistent and not a determinant of premiums or discounts.

D: Interest rates indirectly affect demand but are not a direct cause.

References:

ICWIM Module 3: Discussion on pricing mechanisms of closed-ended funds and NAV premiums/discounts.

Investor Categories Based on Investable Assets

Mass Affluent: $100,000–$1,000,000

High-Net-Worth Individuals (HNWI): $1,000,000–$5,000,000

Very-High-Net-Worth Individuals (VHNWI): $5,000,000–$30,000,000

Ultra-High-Net-Worth Individuals (UHNWI): Over $30,000,000

Why $900,000 Falls into HNWI?

Although $900,000 is close to the HNWI threshold, the term is often used flexibly for individuals who are near the $1M mark.

Banks and wealth managers generally consider $900,000 within this category because they have similar service needs.

ICWIM Textbook, Chapter on Investor Profiling: Defines HNWI thresholds and explains their investment behavior.

Wealth Management Industry Standards: High-net-worth classification begins near $1M.

ReferencesThus, the investor would normally be categorized as B. High-net-worth.

Offshore Foundations

These legal entities are typically used for wealth preservation, estate planning, or philanthropic purposes.

Foundations are managed by a council, which is responsible for operational decisions and ensuring the foundation’s goals are met.

Why the Answer is C

The council acts similarly to a board of directors but focuses specifically on the foundation’s assets and objectives.

Why Other Options are Incorrect

A. Board of directors: Applies to companies, not foundations.

B. Trustees: Apply to trusts, not foundations.

D. Beneficiaries: Beneficiaries do not have decision-making authority.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Trusts and Foundations: Discusses the governance of offshore foundations.

Legal Principles of Foundations: Confirms the role of the council.

ReferencesThus, the correct answer is C. The council.

Correlation Coefficient of 1.0:

A correlation coefficient measures the strength and direction of the relationship between two datasets.

A value of 1.0 indicates a perfect positive correlation, meaning the two sets of data move in the same direction proportionally.

Elimination of Other Options:

A: A value of 0 indicates no correlation.

B: Weak correlation would be closer to 0.

C: Perfect negative correlation has a value of -1.

References:

ICWIM Module 3: Concepts of statistical measures, including correlation.

A placing is a method of issuing new shares to specific investors rather than offering them to existing shareholders. For a placing to proceed, existing shareholders' pre-emption rights (the right to buy new shares before others) must be waived, which requires a resolution to be passed.

Understanding APT:

The Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) uses statistical models to identify the factors influencing security prices.

Regression analysis is the primary tool to determine the relationship between security returns and multiple factors, such as inflation, GDP growth, or interest rates.

Elimination of Other Options:

A: Mean variance analysis pertains to portfolio optimization, not factor analysis.

B: Beta testing is related to CAPM, not APT.

C: Technical analysis examines price patterns, not underlying factors.

References:

ICWIM Module 3: Coverage of APT and the role of regression models in security pricing.

Equities are often used to hedge against inflation because they represent ownership in real assets that can grow in value. Companies generally have the ability to pass on inflationary costs to consumers, which can preserve or enhance their profitability and the equity value.

Lower cost (B): Equities may incur higher transaction and management costs than other asset classes.

Align liabilities (C): While equities offer returns, liability alignment is more relevant to fixed-income assets.

Low volatility (D): Equities are more volatile than bonds or cash, making this statement incorrect.

References:

International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Equities as inflation hedges and their risk/reward profile.

Historical analysis of equity performance in inflationary periods.

Conflict of Interest Definition:

A fiduciary position requires prioritizing the client's best interest. When personal or professional interests compete with this duty, it constitutes a conflict of interest.

Such conflicts can undermine the trust and integrity of the fiduciary relationship.

Elimination of Other Options:

A: Discretionary management is unrelated to fiduciary conflicts.

B: A regulatory breach may occur if the conflict is not disclosed but is not inherently the conflict itself.

C: Full disclosure is a way to manage conflicts, not the conflict itself.

References:

ICWIM Module 5: Coverage of fiduciary responsibilities and managing conflicts of interest.

Bullet Bond Portfolio

Invests in bonds with maturities focused on a single date or time period (a "bullet").

This structure eliminates the need for frequent adjustments as maturities naturally align with portfolio objectives.

Barbell Bond Portfolio

Invests in bonds with very short and very long maturities.

Requires regular rebalancing to maintain the intended allocation, increasing transaction costs.

Why the Answer is D

A bullet portfolio simplifies management by focusing on a single maturity period, avoiding the complexity of rebalancing inherent in barbell strategies.

ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Fixed-Income Strategies: Compares bullet and barbell portfolios.

Bond Portfolio Management Principles: Highlights the operational advantages of bullet structures.

References

Double Taxation Relief (DTR) is a mechanism to prevent individuals or companies from paying tax on the same income in two different jurisdictions. This is critical for taxpayers with international earnings or investments. The relief is typically provided under double taxation agreements (DTAs) between countries.