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350-701 Cisco Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your Cisco 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 726 questions

An engineer needs to add protection for data in transit and have headers in the email message Which configuration is needed to accomplish this goal?

A.

Provision the email appliance

B.

Deploy an encryption appliance.

C.

Map sender !P addresses to a host interface.

D.

Enable flagged message handling

Which solution allows an administrator to provision, monitor, and secure mobile devices on Windows and Mac computers from a centralized dashboard?

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

C.

Cisco ISE

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch

Which compliance status is shown when a configured posture policy requirement is not met?

A.

compliant

B.

unknown

C.

authorized

D.

noncompliant

When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?

A.

Spero analysis

B.

dynamic analysis

C.

sandbox analysis

D.

malware analysis

Which function is included when Cisco AMP is added to web security?

A.

multifactor, authentication-based user identity

B.

detailed analytics of the unknown file's behavior

C.

phishing detection on emails

D.

threat prevention on an infected endpoint

Which metric is used by the monitoring agent to collect and output packet loss and jitter information?

A.

WSAv performance

B.

AVC performance

C.

OTCP performance

D.

RTP performance

Which flaw does an attacker leverage when exploiting SQL injection vulnerabilities?

A.

user input validation in a web page or web application

B.

Linux and Windows operating systems

C.

database

D.

web page images

What is an advantage of the Cisco Umbrella roaming client?

A.

the ability to see all traffic without requiring TLS decryption

B.

visibility into IP-based threats by tunneling suspicious IP connections

C.

the ability to dynamically categorize traffic to previously uncategorized sites

D.

visibility into traffic that is destined to sites within the office environment

In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response solution be chosen versus an Endpoint Protection Platform?

A.

When there is a need to have more advanced detection capabilities

B.

When there is a need for traditional anti-malware detection

C.

When there is no need to have the solution centrally managed

D.

When there is no firewall on the network

A networking team must harden an organization's network from VLAN hopping attacks. The team disables Dynamic Trunking Protocol and puts any unused ports in an unused VLAN. A trunk port is used as a trunk link. What must the team configure next to harden the network against VLAN hopping attacks?

A.

disable STP on the network devices

B.

dedicated VLAN ID for all trunk ports

C.

DHCP snooping on all the switches

D.

enable port-based network access control

What are two rootkit types? (Choose two)

A.

registry

B.

virtual

C.

bootloader

D.

user mode

E.

buffer mode

What are the components of endpoint protection against social engineering attacks?

A.

IPsec

B.

IDS

C.

Firewall

D.

Cisco Secure Email Gateway

An organization plans to upgrade its current email security solutions, and an engineer must deploy Cisco Secure Email. The requirements for the upgrade are:

    Implement Data Loss Prevention

    Implement mail encryption

    Integrate with an existing Cisco IronPort Secure Email Gateway solution

Which Cisco Secure Email license is needed to accomplish this task?

A.

Cisco Secure Email Outbound Essentials

B.

Cisco Secure Email Phishing Defense

C.

Cisco Secure Email Domain Protection

D.

Cisco Secure Email Inbound Essentials

Which VPN technology supports a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

A.

FlexVPN

B.

DMVPN

C.

SSL VPN

D.

GET VPN

What is the term for the concept of limiting communication between applications or containers on the same node?

A.

container orchestration

B.

software-defined access

C.

microservicing

D.

microsegmentation

What are the two most commonly used authentication factors in multifactor authentication? (Choose two)

A.

biometric factor

B.

time factor

C.

confidentiality factor

D.

knowledge factor

E.

encryption factor

What is a difference between an XSS attack and an SQL injection attack?

A.

SQL injection is a hacking method used to attack SQL databases, whereas XSS attacks can exist in many different types of applications

B.

XSS is a hacking method used to attack SQL databases, whereas SQL injection attacks can exist in many different types of applications

C.

SQL injection attacks are used to steal information from databases whereas XSS attacks are used toredirect users to websites where attackers can steal data from them

D.

XSS attacks are used to steal information from databases whereas SQL injection attacks are used toredirect users to websites where attackers can steal data from them

What are two workload security models? (Choose two.)

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

off-premises

D.

on-premises

E.

IaaS

A network administrator is setting up Cisco FMC to send logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging (SaaS). The network administrator is anticipating a high volume of logging events from the firewalls and wants lo limit the strain on firewall resources. Which method must the administrator use to send these logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging?

A.

SFTP using the FMCCLI

B.

syslog using the Secure Event Connector

C.

direct connection using SNMP traps

D.

HTTP POST using the Security Analytics FMC plugin

A web hosting company must upgrade its older, unsupported on-premises servers. The company wants a cloud solution in which the cloud provider is responsible for:

    Server patching

    Application maintenance

    Data center security

    Disaster recovery

Which type of cloud meets the requirements?

A.

Hybrid

B.

IaaS

C.

SaaS

D.

PaaS

In which two ways does Easy Connect help control network access when used with Cisco TrustSec? (Choose two)

A.

It allows multiple security products to share information and work together to enhance security posture in the network.

B.

It creates a dashboard in Cisco ISE that provides full visibility of all connected endpoints.

C.

It allows for the assignment of Security Group Tags and does not require 802.1x to be configured on the switch or the endpoint.

D.

It integrates with third-party products to provide better visibility throughout the network.

E.

It allows for managed endpoints that authenticate to AD to be mapped to Security Groups (PassiveID).

Which Cisco DNA Center RESTful PNP API adds and claims a device into a workflow?

A.

api/v1/fie/config

B.

api/v1/onboarding/pnp-device/import

C.

api/v1/onboarding/pnp-device

D.

api/v1/onboarding/workflow

When planning a VPN deployment, for which reason does an engineer opt for an active/active FlexVPN

configuration as opposed to DMVPN?

A.

Multiple routers or VRFs are required.

B.

Traffic is distributed statically by default.

C.

Floating static routes are required.

D.

HSRP is used for faliover.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a new Cisco ISE backend server as a RADIUS server to provide AAA for all access requests from the client to the ISE-Frontend server.

Which Cisco ISE configuration must be used?

A.

Set 10.11.1.2 as a network device in ISE-Frontend. Set port 1700/2083 for RADIUS authentication.

B.

Set 10.11.1.1 as the external RADIUS server in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1812/1813 for authentication and accounting.

C.

Set 10.11.1.2 as the external RADIUS server in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1812/1813 for authentication and accounting.

D.

Set 10.11.1.1 as a network device in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1700/2083 for RADIUS authentication.

Which ESA implementation method segregates inbound and outbound email?

A.

one listener on a single physical Interface

B.

pair of logical listeners on a single physical interface with two unique logical IPv4 addresses and one IPv6 address

C.

pair of logical IPv4 listeners and a pair Of IPv6 listeners on two physically separate interfaces

D.

one listener on one logical IPv4 address on a single logical interface

How does a Cisco Secure Firewall help to lower the risk of exfiltration techniques that steal customer data?

A.

Blocking UDP port 53

B.

Blocking TCP port 53

C.

Encrypting the DNS communication

D.

Inspecting the DNS traffic

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is implementing a certificate based VPN. What is the result of the existing configuration?

A.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is used as the identity when matching an IKEv2 authorization policy.

B.

Only an IKEv2 peer that has an OU certificate attribute set to MANGLER establishes an IKEv2 SA successfully

C.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is encrypted when the OU is set to MANGLER

D.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is set to MANGLER

An organization has two systems in their DMZ that have an unencrypted link between them for communication.

The organization does not have a defined password policy and uses several default accounts on the systems.

The application used on those systems also have not gone through stringent code reviews. Which vulnerability

would help an attacker brute force their way into the systems?

A.

weak passwords

B.

lack of input validation

C.

missing encryption

D.

lack of file permission

What is a benefit of flexible NetFlow records?

A.

They are used for security

B.

They are used for accounting

C.

They monitor a packet from Layer 2 to Layer 5

D.

They have customized traffic identification

What is provided by the Secure Hash Algorithm in a VPN?

A.

integrity

B.

key exchange

C.

encryption

D.

authentication

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Total 726 questions
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