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350-701 Cisco Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701 v2.0) Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your Cisco 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701 v2.0) certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2026, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 801 questions

An administrator is implementing management plane protection and must configure an interface on a Cisco router to only terminate management packets that are destined for the router. Which set of IOS commands must be used to complete the implementation?

A.
B.
C.
D.

A switch with Dynamic ARP Inspection enabled has received a spoofed ARP response on a trusted interface.

How does the switch behave in this situation?

A.

It forwards the packet after validation by using the MAC Binding Table.

B.

It drops the packet after validation by using the IP & MAC Binding Table.

C.

It forwards the packet without validation.

D.

It drops the packet without validation.

Which two fields are defined in the NetFlow flow? (Choose two)

A.

type of service byte

B.

class of service bits

C.

Layer 4 protocol type

D.

destination port

E.

output logical interface

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two indications of the Cisco Firepower Services Module configuration?

(Choose two.)

A.

The module is operating in IDS mode.

B.

Traffic is blocked if the module fails.

C.

The module fails to receive redirected traffic.

D.

The module is operating in IPS mode.

E.

Traffic continues to flow if the module fails.

Email security has become a high priority task for a security engineer at a large multi-national organization due to ongoing phishing campaigns. To help control this, the engineer has deployed an Incoming Content Filter with a URL reputation of (-10 00 to -6 00) on the Cisco ESA Which action will the system perform to disable any links in messages that match the filter?

A.

Defang

B.

Quarantine

C.

FilterAction

D.

ScreenAction

What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?

A.

Deceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.

B.

A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.

C.

Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.

D.

Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.

What are two benefits of using Cisco Secure Access Secure Web Gateway in addition to DNS-layer protection? (Choose two.)

A.

Enforcing URL-based filtering

B.

Blocking malware before DNS lookup

C.

Data loss prevention

D.

Routing traffic through internal mail filters

E.

Caching DNS queries at the firewall

An organization has noticed an increase in malicious content downloads and wants to use Cisco Umbrella to prevent this activity for suspicious domains while allowing normal web traffic. Which action will accomplish this task?

A.

Set content settings to High

B.

Configure the intelligent proxy.

C.

Use destination block lists.

D.

Configure application block lists.

An engineer adds a custom detection policy to a Cisco AMP deployment and encounters issues with the

configuration. The simple detection mechanism is configured, but the dashboard indicates that the hash is not 64 characters and is non-zero. What is the issue?

A.

The engineer is attempting to upload a hash created using MD5 instead of SHA-256

B.

The file being uploaded is incompatible with simple detections and must use advanced detections

C.

The hash being uploaded is part of a set in an incorrect format

D.

The engineer is attempting to upload a file instead of a hash

Refer to the exhibit.

During the rollout of a new site-to-site VPN between a headquarters Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device and a partner firewall, the tunnel never completes IKEv1 Phase 1 and remains in the MM_WAIT_MSG_6 state. Reachability between the firewalls over the Internet is verified, ISAKMP UDP port 500 is permitted end-to-end, and the IKE Phase 1 policy parameters—including encryption, hashing, DH group, and lifetime—match exactly on both ends. Which configuration action must be performed to resolve the issue?

A.

Configure matching peer-identity values under each tunnel group on both endpoints.

B.

Add the same pre-shared key on both peers within their tunnel-group attributes.

C.

Implement identical Diffie-Hellman group numbers within the active IKEv1 policy.

D.

Apply equivalent transform sets and lifetimes inside the crypto-map entries.

Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious?

A.

AMP

B.

AnyConnect

C.

DynDNS

D.

Talos

Which product allows Cisco FMC to push security intelligence observable to its sensors from other products?

A.

Encrypted Traffic Analytics

B.

Threat Intelligence Director

C.

Cognitive Threat Analytics

D.

Cisco Talos Intelligence

A company recently discovered an attack propagating throughout their Windows network via a file named abc428565580xyz exe The malicious file was uploaded to a Simple Custom Detection list in the AMP for Endpoints Portal and the currently applied policy for the Windows clients was updated to reference the detection list Verification testing scans on known infected systems shows that AMP for Endpoints is not detecting the presence of this file as an indicator of compromise What must be performed to ensure detection of the malicious file?

A.

Upload the malicious file to the Blocked Application Control List

B.

Use an Advanced Custom Detection List instead of a Simple Custom Detection List

C.

Check the box in the policy configuration to send the file to Cisco Threat Grid for dynamic analysis

D.

Upload the SHA-256 hash for the file to the Simple Custom Detection List

Which feature is leveraged by advanced antimalware capabilities to be an effective endpomt protection platform?

A.

big data

B.

storm centers

C.

sandboxing

D.

blocklisting

Which type of attack is social engineering?

A.

trojan

B.

phishing

C.

malware

D.

MITM

A logistics company issues corporate laptops that must automatically establish a Cisco Secure Client VPN tunnel whenever users are outside the office and connected to an untrusted external network. Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense is the VPN headend and is already configured with remote-access profiles, address pools, and a PKI that distributes both machine and user certificates to endpoints. Management requires the tunnel to come up unattended before any user signs in to a laptop. Device-based authentication must be used, and the client must distinguish the corporate LAN from outside networks. The VPN must be connected when a user is outside the corporate network. Which configuration action must be performed to meet the requirements?

A.

Configure a Management VPN tunnel with user-certificate authentication for unattended connectivity.

B.

Configure Trusted Network Detection and Start Before Login with machine-certificate authentication for the client.

C.

Configure Trusted Network Detection using cached domain credentials for client authentication.

D.

Implement Start Before Login paired with user-certificate authentication in the profile.

What is provided by the Secure Hash Algorithm in a VPN?

A.

integrity

B.

key exchange

C.

encryption

D.

authentication

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure an incoming mail policy so that each email sent from usera1@example.com to a domain of @cisco.com is scanned for antispam and advanced malware protection. All other settings will use the default behavior. What must be configured in the incoming mail policy to meet the requirements?

A.

Policy Name: Default Policy  Sender: usera1@example.com  Recipient: @cisco.com

B.

Policy Name: usera1 policy  Sender: usera1@example.com  Recipient: @cisco.com

C.

Policy Name: Anti-Malware policy  Sender: usera1@example.com  Recipient: @cisco.com

D.

Policy Name: cisco.com policy  Sender: usera1@example.com  Recipient: @cisco.com

Which ID store requires that a shadow user be created on Cisco ISE for the admin login to work?

A.

RSA SecureID

B.

Internal Database

C.

Active Directory

D.

LDAP

Which cryptographic process provides origin confidentiality, integrity, and origin authentication for packets?

A.

IKEv1

B.

AH

C.

ESP

D.

IKEv2

Which two protocols must be configured to authenticate end users to the Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)

A.

NTLMSSP

B.

Kerberos

C.

CHAP

D.

TACACS+

E.

RADIUS

What are two facts about WSA HTTP proxy configuration with a PAC file? (Choose two.)

A.

It is defined as a Transparent proxy deployment.

B.

In a dual-NIC configuration, the PAC file directs traffic through the two NICs to the proxy.

C.

The PAC file, which references the proxy, is deployed to the client web browser.

D.

It is defined as an Explicit proxy deployment.

E.

It is defined as a Bridge proxy deployment.

Which IETF attribute is supported for the RADIUS CoA feature?

A.

24 State

B.

30 Calling-Station-ID

C.

42 Acct-Session-ID

D.

81 Message-Authenticator

A network engineer must prevent endpoints from becoming infected by malicious files. The infrastructure includes Cisco Secure Endpoint, which must execute suspicious files in a cloud sandbox. Which feature must the engineer configure on Cisco Secure Endpoint to meet the requirement?

A.

Dynamic File Analysis

B.

Orbital Advanced Search

C.

Layer 4 Traffic Monitor

D.

Cisco Application Visibility and Control

An engineer must modify a policy to block specific addresses using Cisco Umbrella. The policy is created already and is actively u: of the default policy elements. What else must be done to accomplish this task?

A.

Add the specified addresses to the identities list and create a block action.

B.

Create a destination list for addresses to be allowed or blocked.

C.

Use content categories to block or allow specific addresses.

D.

Modify the application settings to allow only applications to connect to required addresses.

An engineer is securing access to data served by a cloud-based application. The data must be protected from modification in transit, and its integrity must be validated. The following security measures have been implemented:

• Governance with role-based access control based on the principle of least privilege

• TLS 1.3 with signed certificates

• AES-256 with MD5

What must be configured to complete the secure implementation?

A.

3DES instead of AES

B.

DES instead of TLS 1.3

C.

SHA-512 instead of MD5

D.

SSLv3 instead of MD5

An engineer is configuring cloud logging using a company-managed Amazon S3 bucket for Cisco Umbrella logs. What benefit does this configuration provide for accessing log data?

A.

It is included m the license cost for the multi-org console of Cisco Umbrella

B.

It can grant third-party SIEM integrations write access to the S3 bucket

C.

No other applications except Cisco Umbrella can write to the S3 bucket

D.

Data can be stored offline for 30 days.

An administrator needs to configure the Cisco ASA via ASDM such that the network management system

can actively monitor the host using SNMPv3. Which two tasks must be performed for this configuration?

(Choose two.)

A.

Specify the SNMP manager and UDP port.

B.

Specify an SNMP user group

C.

Specify a community string.

D.

Add an SNMP USM entry

E.

Add an SNMP host access entry

Which telemetry data captures variations seen within the flow, such as the packets TTL, IP/TCP flags, and payload length?

A.

interpacket variation

B.

software package variation

C.

flow insight variation

D.

process details variation

What is the term for having information about threats and threat actors that helps mitigate harmful events that would otherwise compromise networks or systems?

A.

trusted automated exchange

B.

Indicators of Compromise

C.

The Exploit Database

D.

threat intelligence

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Total 801 questions
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