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350-701 Cisco Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your Cisco 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 726 questions

What are two differences between a Cisco WSA that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode? (Choose two)

A.

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.

B.

The Cisco WSA is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.

C.

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.

D.

The Cisco WSA uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.

E.

When the Cisco WSA is running in transparent mode, it uses the WSA's own IP address as the HTTP request destination.

Which Cisco product is open, scalable, and built on IETF standards to allow multiple security products from

Cisco and other vendors to share data and interoperate with each other?

A.

Advanced Malware Protection

B.

Platform Exchange Grid

C.

Multifactor Platform Integration

D.

Firepower Threat Defense

Why should organizations migrate to an MFA strategy for authentication?

A.

Single methods of authentication can be compromised more easily than MFA.

B.

Biometrics authentication leads to the need for MFA due to its ability to be hacked easily.

C.

MFA methods of authentication are never compromised.

D.

MFA does not require any piece of evidence for an authentication mechanism.

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command was used to generate this output and to show which ports are

authenticating with dot1x or mab?

A.

show authentication registrations

B.

show authentication method

C.

show dot1x all

D.

show authentication sessions

A network engineer is configuring NetFlow top talkers on a Cisco router Drag and drop the steps in the process from the left into the sequence on the right

An engineer is configuring IPsec VPN and needs an authentication protocol that is reliable and supports ACK

and sequence. Which protocol accomplishes this goal?

A.

AES-192

B.

IKEv1

C.

AES-256

D.

ESP

Which feature of Cisco ASA allows VPN users to be postured against Cisco ISE without requiring an inline

posture node?

A.

RADIUS Change of Authorization

B.

device tracking

C.

DHCP snooping

D.

VLAN hopping

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must enable secure SSH protocols and enters this configuration. What are two results of running this set of commands on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

A.

Labels the key pair to be used for SSH

B.

Uses the FQDN with the label command

C.

Generates AES key pairs on the router

D.

Generates RSA key pair on the router

E.

Enables SSHv1 on the router

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of authentication is in use?

A.

LDAP authentication for Microsoft Outlook

B.

POP3 authentication

C.

SMTP relay server authentication

D.

external user and relay mail authentication

Which feature is used to restrict communication between interfaces on a Cisco ASA?

A.

VLAN subinterfaces

B.

Traffic zones

C.

Security levels

D.

VxLAN interfaces

Refer to the exhibit.

How does Cisco Umbrella manage traffic that is directed toward risky domains?

A.

Traffic is proximed through the intelligent proxy.

B.

Traffic is managed by the security settings and blocked.

C.

Traffic is managed by the application settings, unhandled and allowed.

D.

Traffic is allowed but logged.

Which IETF attribute is supported for the RADIUS CoA feature?

A.

24 State

B.

30 Calling-Station-ID

C.

42 Acct-Session-ID

D.

81 Message-Authenticator

Which benefit does endpoint security provide the overall security posture of an organization?

A.

It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.

B.

It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.

C.

It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.

D.

It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.

Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two)

A.

DHCP

B.

Design

C.

Accounting

D.

DNS

E.

Provision

Which two methods are available in Cisco Secure Web Appliance to process client requests when configured in Transparent mode? (Choose two.)

A.

WCCP

B.

Browser settings

C.

WPAD

D.

PAC files

E.

PBR

How does DNS Tunneling exfiltrate data?

A.

An attacker registers a domain that a client connects to based on DNS records and sends malware throughthat connection.

B.

An attacker opens a reverse DNS shell to get into the client’s system and install malware on it.

C.

An attacker uses a non-standard DNS port to gain access to the organization’s DNS servers in order topoison the resolutions.

D.

An attacker sends an email to the target with hidden DNS resolvers in it to redirect them to a maliciousdomain.

Which configuration method provides the options to prevent physical and virtual endpoint devices that are in the same base EPG or uSeg from being able to communicate with each other with Vmware VDS or Microsoft vSwitch?

A.

inter-EPG isolation

B.

inter-VLAN security

C.

intra-EPG isolation

D.

placement in separate EPGs

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration item makes it possible to have the AAA session on the network?

A.

aaa authorization exec default ise

B.

aaa authentication enable default enable

C.

aaa authorization network default group ise

D.

aaa authorization login console ise

Which method is used to deploy certificates and configure the supplicant on mobile devices to gain access to

network resources?

A.

BYOD on boarding

B.

Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol

C.

Client provisioning

D.

MAC authentication bypass

Which parameter is required when configuring a Netflow exporter on a Cisco Router?

A.

DSCP value

B.

Source interface

C.

Exporter name

D.

Exporter description

An organization deploys multiple Cisco FTD appliances and wants to manage them using one centralized

solution. The organization does not have a local VM but does have existing Cisco ASAs that must migrate over

to Cisco FTDs. Which solution meets the needs of the organization?

A.

Cisco FMC

B.

CSM

C.

Cisco FDM

D.

CDO

An engineer is deploying Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) for Endpoints and wants to create a policy that prevents users from executing file named abc424952615.exe without quarantining that file What type of Outbreak Control list must the SHA.-256 hash value for the file be added to in order to accomplish this?

A.

Advanced Custom Detection

B.

Blocked Application

C.

Isolation

D.

Simple Custom Detection

Which feature is leveraged by advanced antimalware capabilities to be an effective endpomt protection platform?

A.

big data

B.

storm centers

C.

sandboxing

D.

blocklisting

Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDynamics to monitor an EC2 instance in Amazon Web Services.

Which Cisco security solution provides patch management in the cloud?

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco ISE

C.

Cisco CloudLock

D.

Cisco Tetration

How is a cross-site scripting attack executed?

A.

Force a currently authenticated end user to execute unwanted actions on a web app

B.

Execute malicious client-side scripts injected to a client via a web app

C.

Inject a database query via the input data from the client to a web app

D.

Intercept communications between a client and a web server

A security test performed on one of the applications shows that user input is not validated. Which security vulnerability is the application more susceptible to because of this lack of validation?

A.

denial -of-service

B.

cross-site request forgery

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

SQL injection

What is the difference between Cross-site Scripting and SQL Injection, attacks?

A.

Cross-site Scripting is an attack where code is injected into a database, whereas SQL Injection is an attack where code is injected into a browser.

B.

Cross-site Scripting is a brute force attack targeting remote sites, whereas SQL Injection is a socialengineering attack.

C.

Cross-site Scripting is when executives in a corporation are attacked, whereas SQL Injection is when adatabase is manipulated.

D.

Cross-site Scripting is an attack where code is executed from the server side, whereas SQL Injection is an attack where code is executed from the client side.

Which Cisco solution provides a comprehensive view of Internet domains. IP addresses, and autonomous systems to help pinpoint attackers and malicious infrastructures?

A.

Cisco Threat Indication Database

B.

Cisco Advanced Malware Investigate

C.

Cisco Umbrella Investigate

D.

Cisco Secure Workload Cloud

In which cloud services model is the customer responsible for scanning for and mitigation of application vulnerabilities?

A.

PaaS

B.

VMaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

SaaS

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Total 726 questions
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