220-1201 CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2026) Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

The correct answer is D. Decreased burn-in.

According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Hardware and Display Technologies:

Mini-LED displays use an array of tiny LEDs as a backlight for LCD panels.

Unlike OLED displays, which are susceptible to burn-in (permanent image retention when static content is displayed for long periods), mini-LEDs reduce the risk because the pixels themselves do not emit light individually and are less prone to permanent image retention.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Increased contrast: OLED typically provides better contrast because it can turn off individual pixels completely.

B. No backlight: Mini-LEDs still use a backlight, whereas OLEDs do not.

C. Improved viewing angle: OLEDs generally offer wider viewing angles than mini-LED LCDs.

Looking at the network configurations and outputs from both PCs and servers, here are the possible issues and solutions:

1. PC 1

Issue: The IP address for PC1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with Server 1 (which also uses 192.168.1.1).

Solution: Change the IP address on PC1 to a unique one within the range, like 192.168.1.3.

2. PC 2

Issue: PC 2 is configured with 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with Server 2 that has the same IP address.

Solution: Update the IP address on PC 2 to something unique, like 192.168.1.4.

3. Server 1

Issue: The IP address for Server 1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with PC1.

Solution: Since Server 1 and PC1 are using the same IP address, change one of them. For Server 1, you could change the IP address to 192.168.1.5.

4. Server 2

Issue: Server 2 is using the IP address 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with PC2.

Solution: Update Server 2 to use a different IP address, such as 192.168.1.6.

General Remediation:

The primary problem here is overlapping IP addresses, leading to connectivity issues. Each device on the network must have a unique IP address. After making these changes, ensure that all devices can communicate properly by testing the connection between devices and verifying they can access shared resources.

The correct answer is B. Switches connect devices within a network; routers connect networks.

According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 networking objectives:

Switches operate at the Data Link layer (Layer 2) and sometimes Layer 3, connecting multiple devices within the same local area network (LAN). They manage data traffic between devices by using MAC addresses to forward frames only to the intended recipient.

Routers operate at the Network layer (Layer 3) and connect different networks together, such as connecting a LAN to the internet. They use IP addresses to determine the best path for forwarding packets between networks.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Routers are programmable; switches are not programmable: Both devices can have programmable configurations in enterprise environments, so this is not a defining difference.

C. Switches are programmable; routers are not programmable: Same reasoning as above; not accurate.

D. Routers connect devices within a network; switches connect networks: This reverses the actual roles and is incorrect.

The best answer provided is A, although it is important to note that the question is somewhat misleading because it asks about motherboard selection but provides mostly incorrect or irrelevant motherboard-related options.

For high-performance workloads such as video editing and virtual reality (VR) using an Intel Core i9 processor and multiple graphics cards (multi-GPU setup), system design considerations include high power consumption and significant heat output. In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under hardware planning and troubleshooting, high-performance CPUs and multiple GPUs require adequate thermal management solutions, including advanced cooling systems (air or liquid cooling) to ensure system stability and prevent thermal throttling.

Why A is the best answer:

High-end CPUs like Intel Core i9 and multiple GPUs generate substantial heat.

Proper cooling is essential for maintaining performance under sustained load (video rendering, VR workloads).

While not strictly a motherboard feature, cooling is a critical system requirement for such a build.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. Use DDR3 RAM for increased compatibility

Incorrect because modern Intel Core i9 platforms use DDR4 or DDR5, not DDR3, which is obsolete and incompatible with current high-performance motherboards.

C. Verify there are two PCIe x1 slots for additional devices

Incorrect because PCIe x1 slots are used for low-bandwidth devices (sound cards, network cards), not graphics cards.

Multiple GPUs require PCIe x16 slots, not x1.

D. Select a motherboard with integrated graphics to support video output

Incorrect because high-performance systems with discrete GPUs rely on those GPUs for rendering. Integrated graphics are unnecessary and sometimes disabled when a dedicated GPU is installed.

Exam Insight (CompTIA A+ perspective):

In real-world A+ Core 1 scenarios, the correct motherboard selection for this requirement would focus on:

Multiple PCIe x16 slots (for multi-GPU support)

Compatible socket for Intel Core i9

Support for modern RAM (DDR4/DDR5)

Adequate chipset and power delivery (VRM design)

Proper cooling solution for thermal management

However, since those correct motherboard specifications are not provided in the options, A is the only viable system-level requirement relevant to stability under high-performance load.

In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) networking and troubleshooting, a common cause of “can’t reach internal resources” while docked is that the laptop is still using the wireless interface (or has a higher interface priority for Wi-Fi) instead of the docking station’s wired Ethernet connection. If the Wi-Fi network is a guest/isolated VLAN, uses different routing, or has stricter access controls, the user may be blocked from reaching department file servers even though an Ethernet cable is physically connected to the dock. Disabling Wi-Fi is a fast, low-risk step that forces the system to use the wired NIC path through the docking station, which typically provides the correct corporate network access, DHCP scope, and routing to internal servers.

Restarting the computer might help in some cases, but it’s less targeted and not the “best next step” when the likely issue is interface selection. Replacing the Ethernet cable is appropriate if link lights are off or the wired connection is clearly down, but the scenario highlights that the dock has a hardwired connection—suggesting the physical layer may be fine. Dock firmware updates are not a first-line fix for basic connectivity/access symptoms.

The correct answer is A. RJ11.

According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Networking:

RJ11 connectors are commonly used for telephone lines and data cables that use two pairs of wires (four wires total).

This connector is standard for analog telephone connections and DSL connections.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B. F-type: Used for coaxial cables, commonly in cable TV or broadband internet, not for two-pair data cables.

C. ST: A type of fiber optic connector, not used for copper two-pair wiring.

D. Molex: Primarily used for power connections in computer hardware, not for network or phone cabling.

The correct answer is B. Inspect and replace the printer rollers.

According to CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 objectives under Printers:

Frequent paper jams with no visible obstruction are often caused by worn or dirty feed rollers, which fail to grip and feed paper properly.

Inspecting and replacing the rollers ensures smooth paper feeding and prevents repeated jams, particularly in high-use network printers.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Check for firmware updates: Firmware updates address software or functionality issues, not mechanical paper feeding problems.

C. Reseat the fuser assembly: Fuser issues typically cause smudging or incomplete toner adhesion, not paper jams.

D. Clean the corona wire: The corona wire affects toner adhesion and print quality, not paper feeding.

CompTIA A+ explains that radio frequency (RF) connections use electromagnetic waves instead of copper or optical cabling. Satellite uses RF signals transmitted to and from orbiting satellites, while cellular networks (3G/4G/5G) use RF communications via cell towers.

Cable uses coaxial wired infrastructure, DSL uses telephone lines, Ethernet is twisted-pair copper, and fiber uses light instead of RF.

Satellite and cellular are the only technologies in the list that rely on wireless radio frequency transmission as their medium. The A+ networking domain emphasizes understanding the physical media of WAN technologies and distinguishing wired vs. wireless connectivity, making B and D the correct answers.

A. Run the maintenance application:

Most modern printers include a built-in maintenance application that can calibrate the print heads and correct alignment issues. Running this tool is the first step to address misalignment.

Incorrect Options:

B. Clean the rollers: Cleaning rollers is typically done to resolve paper feed or jamming issues, not alignment problems.

C. Upgrade the firmware: While updating firmware is beneficial for performance improvements, it is not the first step for fixing alignment.

D. Reinstall the drivers: Misaligned printing is usually hardware-related, not a driver issue.

Key Takeaway: The maintenance application should be run first to resolve alignment issues in a newly installed printer.

When a device shows asnot connectedeven though it previously paired, the most effective action is tore-pair the devices. This resets the Bluetooth connection, clears any corruption in pairing profiles, and re-establishes communication.

Option A:Entering a PIN is only relevant during initial pairing and may not be prompted again.

Option B:Turning off Wi-Fi doesn’t typically affect Bluetooth; they operate on similar frequencies but don’t conflict this way in normal use.

Option D:If Bluetooth were disabled, the device wouldn’t appear at all, not just show as “not connected.”

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.5: Given a scenario, connect and configure accessories and ports of mobile devices.

Inkjet printers are the best choice for a small company seeking full-color printing with a minimal initial cost. While they have higher operating costs (due to ink), they are affordable and capable of high-quality color output.

Why Not A (Thermal printer): Thermal printers are not designed for color printing and are typically used for labels or receipts.

Why Not C (Dot matrix printer): Dot matrix printers are outdated, noisy, and do not support full-color printing.

Why Not D (Laser printer): Laser printers have lower running costs but a higher initial purchase price, especially for color models.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 4.6, printer types​.

The best answer is B. Fan speed and airflow through the heat sinks. The symptoms strongly indicate overheating: the computer works normally at first, slows down as heat builds up, then locks up and powers off to protect the CPU/GPU and motherboard. The Quentin Docter study guide states that a PC that works for a few minutes and then locks up is probably overheating because a heat sink or fan is not functioning properly, and the first troubleshooting step is to check all internal fans and ensure the heat sinks are properly attached. High-end gaming systems are especially heat-sensitive because CPUs and dedicated graphics cards generate substantial heat under load. The same section notes that CPUs are common overheating sources and video cards are also very susceptible in gaming or graphics-heavy systems. Power supply testing is useful for intermittent power problems, but the gradual slowdown before shutdown points more directly to thermal throttling and heat buildup than voltage failure.

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A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is used in DNS to create an alias that maps one domain name to another canonical domain name. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) DNS objectives, CNAME records allow multiple hostnames to reference the same IP address indirectly by pointing to a single authoritative domain name.

For example, www.example.com can be configured as a CNAME that points to example.com. When DNS queries are made, the resolver follows the alias until it reaches an A or AAAA record that contains the actual IP address.

An A record maps a hostname directly to an IPv4 address, while an AAAA record maps a hostname to an IPv6 address. A TXT record is used to store arbitrary text data, commonly for verification, email security (SPF, DKIM), or policy information, not for aliasing.

CompTIA stresses that CNAME records are specifically intended for aliasing and name redirection within DNS, making them the correct answer.

A spam gateway is specifically designed to inspect incoming email and prevent unwanted or malicious messages from reaching users’ inboxes. It can analyse sender reputation, message content, attachments, URLs, headers, and known spam patterns. Messages identified as spam, phishing, or malware can be rejected, quarantined, or marked before reaching the mail server or user. A proxy server primarily intermediates web or network requests and may provide URL filtering, but it is not primarily responsible for email filtering. An intrusion detection system monitors network or system activity for suspicious behaviour and generates alerts rather than directly filtering ordinary unwanted email. A firewall controls network traffic according to addresses, protocols, and ports, but it generally cannot perform the detailed email-content inspection provided by a dedicated spam gateway. Therefore, the spam gateway is the purpose-built solution.

Plenum cabling is designed for use in commercial spaces where cables run through air ducts or plenum spaces, as it has fire-resistant properties and emits less toxic smoke.

Why Not A (USB 3.1 Gen 2): USB is for peripheral connections, not large-scale commercial installations.

Why Not B (Straight tip fiber connector): Fiber connectors are for high-speed connections but are not specifically for commercial spaces.

Why Not D (Cat 8): While Cat 8 is high-speed, it is not uniquely suited for commercial spaces like plenum cabling.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.1, cabling standards​.

The best answer is A. Liquid cooling. A system designed for sustained high CPU utilization and heavy graphics usage needs strong thermal management. The study guide explains that the CPU is one of the greatest cooling challenges in a computer and that modern processors require active cooling. It also notes that high-performance CPU coolers use large heat sinks, high-CFM fans, and better heat transfer methods to dissipate processor heat. Liquid cooling is specifically listed as a CPU cooling method and is described as using a water block to conduct heat away from the processor and circulate it to a radiator for cooling. The Mike Meyers material also explains that liquid cooling is useful for systems that are overclocked or need quieter, stronger cooling. Advanced RISC and x86 describe CPU architecture, not a cooling improvement. A hardware security module protects cryptographic keys and does not help with CPU/GPU heat or performance stability.

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RAID 0 (striping) provides the fastest read (and write) speeds at the lowest cost, as all disk capacity is used for storage and performance. However, it offers no redundancy.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 – RAID types:

" RAID 0 stripes data across multiple disks, offering the best performance and lowest cost but no fault tolerance. "

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: RAID Levels

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4

The degraded status on Server 2 indicates a RAID-5 issue, typically due to a failed or failing drive. In RAID-5 configurations, when one drive fails, the system can still operate but with reduced performance as parity data is used to rebuild missing data on-the-fly.

Recommended Replacement Drive:

To minimize performance degradation, the replacement drive should be:

SAS HDD with the same specifications (64KB stripe size, no read-ahead, and write-back policy).

Matching the configuration exactly ensures seamless integration and optimizes recovery speed in the RAID-5 array.

In RAID-5, degraded performance is expected when one drive fails, as parity data needs to rebuild missing information during each read/write process. Replacing the failed drive restores the RAID array to optimal status, reducing the load on existing drives and returning the system to normal read/write performance. The write-back policy and disabled disk cache settings are designed to reduce latency and increase efficiency, essential for handling real-time applications.

A user reports poor performance on the

application server.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review

the information presented in each chart to

determine which drives need to be replaced.

Select the appropriate replacement drive

that should be used, for the least

performance degradation to the server.

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