SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ Exam 2025 Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

OSINT (Open Source Intelligence) involves collecting publicly available information, including data breaches, leaked credentials, and other exposed company data found online or on the dark web. OSINT tools can discover if a company’s information has been compromised publicly.

SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) monitors internal logs and events but does not collect external breach info. CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) is a database of known software vulnerabilities, not breach data. CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) rates vulnerabilities' severity.

OSINT is a key technique in the Threats and Vulnerabilities domain for external threat intelligence gathering【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is the most effective addition when an organization already has a firewall but continues to face repeated external attacks. Security+ SY0-701 states that an IPS operates inline and automatically blocks malicious traffic in real time based on signatures, anomaly behavior, or heuristics. Whereas a firewall filters traffic by rules, an IPS detects and prevents deeper-level threats such as exploits, malware, and command-and-control attempts.

A UTM (C) includes IPS features, but it is typically used to replace a firewall with an all-in-one appliance. The question states the organization already has a firewall, so the most efficient addition is a standalone IPS. A SIEM (A) aggregates and analyzes logs but does not block attacks. A load balancer (B) distributes traffic for performance—not security.

Thus, the best item to stop active inbound attacks is D: IPS.

Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) is the technology best suited for preventing remote users from accessing malicious URLs. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 framework, SASE integrates cloud-native security capabilities such as DNS filtering, secure web gateways, CASB, and URL categorization, all delivered inline. This means every URL request from a remote user is checked in real time for reputation, content, and category before access is granted.

This solution is specifically designed for remote workforces because security enforcement happens in the cloud, regardless of user location—eliminating reliance on on-premise proxies or VPN routing. SASE also enables consistent policy application and real-time enforcement across distributed networks.

A VPN (A) only encrypts traffic; it does not perform URL reputation checks. IDS (C) detects malicious activity but does not block URL access. SD-WAN (D) optimizes WAN routing but is not focused on content filtering or URL reputation.

Therefore, SASE is the correct and most effective solution for inline URL inspection and preventing remote users from reaching malicious sites.

Detailed Explanation:COPE (Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled) devices allow companies to manage and harden company-owned devices while still enabling limited personal use, reducing security risks while maintaining compatibility with corporate resources. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Mobile Device Deployment Models"​​.

An external examination (also known as an external audit or external review) is the best method for the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to gain an understanding of how the company’s security policies compare to external regulatory requirements. External examinations are conducted by third-party entities that assess an organization’s compliance with laws, regulations, and industry standards.

Penetration tests focus on identifying vulnerabilities, not compliance.

Internal audits assess internal controls but are not impartial or focused on regulatory requirements.

Attestation is a formal declaration but does not involve the actual evaluation of compliance​​​.

Ongoing vendor monitoring is a critical component of third-party risk management (TPRM) and focuses on continuously validating that vendors maintain required security controls throughout the lifecycle of the relationship. According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-701, the most effective ongoing monitoring method is conducting assessments to verify compliance with security requirements. These assessments may include periodic security questionnaires, audits, penetration test results, SOC reports, or compliance attestations that are independently validated.

Option A, requiring a new MSA for each project, is a contractual activity, not a monitoring mechanism. Option B—accepting self-attestation without verification—introduces risk and is specifically discouraged in SY0-701 because it lacks assurance. Option D, reviewing SLAs at contract start, is a one-time activity and does not provide continuous oversight.

Ongoing assessments allow organizations to detect control drift, identify new risks, and ensure vendors remain compliant with evolving regulatory and security expectations. This proactive approach is essential for managing supply chain risk and protecting organizational data.

Therefore, the correct answer is C: Conducting assessments to verify compliance with security requirements.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Hashing is the process used to verify file integrity. When transferring a file between devices, a hash value (such as SHA-256) is generated before the transfer and then recomputed afterward. If the two hash values match, the file has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered with during transmission.

Authentication (A) verifies identity, not file integrity. Obfuscation (B) hides meaning but does not detect modification. Encryption (D) protects confidentiality but does not guarantee integrity unless combined with hashing or digital signatures.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 covers hashing under cryptographic functions used for integrity verification. Hash algorithms ensure that even a single byte change results in a completely different hash value (the avalanche effect). This makes hashing the standard method for verifying the integrity of transferred files, software downloads, backups, and system images.

Integrating each SaaS solution with an Identity Provider (IdP) is the most effective way to address the security issue. This approach allows for Single Sign-On (SSO) capabilities, where users can access multiple SaaS applications with a single set of credentials while maintaining strong password policies across all services. It simplifies the user experience and ensures consistent security enforcement across different SaaS platforms.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management​.

A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a secure method to provide employees with remote access to a company's network. It encrypts data, protecting it from interception and ensuring secure communication between the user and the internal network.References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content​, Security+ SY0-601 Book​.

Change management is the formal process designed to control, document, approve, and track modifications to systems, internal processes, assets, and security controls. This control mechanism helps prevent unauthorized or unintended changes that could introduce vulnerabilities or disrupt operations.

Playbooks are documented procedures for responding to incidents, incident response manages security incidents, and acceptable use policies define acceptable user behavior but do not directly control changes.

By enforcing proper change management, organizations maintain the integrity and security of their infrastructure, which is a critical topic covered in the Security Program Management and Oversight domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

Full Disk Encryption (FDE) ensures that all data on the drive is encrypted, preventing unauthorized access even if the device is lost.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A responsibility matrix, often referred to in cloud computing as the Shared Responsibility Model, defines the exact roles, duties, and expectations between a cloud service provider (CSP) and the customer. This includes who is responsible for configuration, maintenance, patching, logging, updates, identity management, network security, and data protection.

According to the SY0-701 exam objectives, cloud models such as SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS all divide responsibilities differently. The responsibility matrix clarifies these boundaries so that neither party assumes the other is handling a critical security task. Misunderstandings in these areas can create dangerous security gaps, such as unpatched virtual machines, misconfigured storage buckets, or weak access controls.

A Service-Level Agreement (A) focuses on uptime, performance, and service expectations—not shared security roles. A Memorandum of Understanding (C) describes high-level cooperation between organizations, while an NDA (D) protects confidential information.

The responsibility matrix is emphasized under Security Program Management, specifically in managing third-party relationships and cloud provider governance, ensuring both parties understand their obligations and reducing the risk of misconfigurations or operational vulnerabilities.

Since the logs on the endpoint were deleted, the next best option for the analyst is to examine firewall logs. Firewall logs can reveal external communication, including outbound traffic to a command-and-control (C2) server. These logs would contain information about the IP addresses, ports, and protocols used, which can help in identifying suspicious connections.

IPS logs may provide information about network intrusions, but firewall logs are better for tracking communication patterns.

ACL logs (Access Control List) are useful for tracking access permissions but not for identifying C2 communication.

Windows security logs would have been ideal if they had not been deleted

An application allow list is a security technique that specifies which applications are permitted to run on a system or a network. An application allow list can block unknown programs from executing by only allowing the execution of programs that are explicitly authorized and verified. An application allow list can prevent malware, unauthorized software, or unwanted applications from running and compromising the security of the system or the network12.

The other options are not the best ways to block unknown programs from executing:

Access control list: This is a security technique that specifies which users or groups are granted or denied access to a resource or an object. An access control list can control the permissions and privileges of users or groups, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing13.

Host-based firewall: This is a security device that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host or system. A host-based firewall can block or allow networkconnections based on predefined rules, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing1 .

DLP solution: This is a security system that detects and prevents the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data. A DLP solution can protect the confidentiality and integrity of data, but it does not directly block unknown programs from executing1 .

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Application Whitelisting – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 3.5, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100.

Detailed Explanation:Firewall logs provide details of all network traffic, including connections to and from IoT devices. They are typically the first source of evidence for identifying the time of an exploit. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Log Analysis for Incident Response"​​.

Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its format, origin, creation date, author, and other attributes. Video files, like other types of files, can contain metadata that can provide useful information for forensic analysis. For example, metadata can reveal the camera model, location, date and time, and software used to create or edit the video file. To query the file’s metadata, a security analyst can use various tools, such as MediaInfo1, ffprobe2, or hexdump3, to extract anddisplay the metadata from the video file. By querying the file’s metadata, the security analyst can most likely identify both the creation date and the file’s creator, as well as other relevant information. Obtaining the file’s SHA-256 hash, checking endpoint logs, or using hexdump on the file’s contents are other possible actions, but they are not the most appropriate to answer the question. The file’s SHA-256 hash is a cryptographic value that can be used to verify the integrity or uniqueness of the file, but it does not reveal any information about the file’s creation date or creator. Checking endpoint logs can provide some clues about the file’s origin or activity, but it may not be reliable or accurate, especially if the logs are tampered with or incomplete. Using hexdump on the file’s contents can show the raw binary data of the file, but it may not be easy or feasible to interpret the metadata from the hex output, especially if the file is large or encrypted. References: 1: How do I get the meta-data of a video file? 2: How to check if an mp4 file contains malware? 3: [Hexdump - Wikipedia]

AVirtual Private Network (VPN) (B)encrypts all data transmitted between remote users and the enterprise infrastructure, ensuringconfidentiality. VPNs are essential in protecting sensitive data from interception over untrusted networks.

This is covered underDomain 3.3: Secure network designs, whereVPNsare listed as a key control forensuring confidentiality of remote connections.

Disabling access is an automation use case that would best enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company. Disabling access is the process of revoking or suspending the access rights of a user account, such as login credentials, email, VPN, cloud services, etc. Disabling access can prevent unauthorized or malicious use of the account by former employees or attackers who may have compromised the account. Disabling access can also reduce the attack surface and the risk of data breaches or leaks. Disabling access can be automated by using scripts, tools, or workflows that can trigger the action based on predefined events, such as employee termination, resignation, or transfer. Automation can ensure that the access is disabled in a timely, consistent, and efficient manner, without relying on manual intervention or human error.

This is a classic example of Business Email Compromise (BEC), where attackers spoof or compromise trusted email accounts to trick employees into performing unauthorized financial transactions.

Vishing (B) is voice phishing, spear phishing (C) targets individuals with customized messages, and impersonation (D) is a general term for identity deception but BEC specifically describes financial fraud via email.

BEC is a major threat covered in the Threats domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

Full packet capture is a technique that records all network traffic passing through a device, such as a router or firewall. It allows for detailed analysis and investigation of network events, such as SQLi attacks, by providing the complete content and context of the packets. Full packet capture can help identify the source, destination, payload, and timing of an SQLi attack, as well as the impact on the server and database. Logging NetFlow traffic, network traffic sensors, and endpoint and OS-specific security logs can provide some information about network activity, but they do not capture the full content of the packets, which may limit the scope and depth of the investigation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 372-373

The correct answer is Data classification because it is the primary mechanism used to determine the sensitivity and criticality of information involved in a security incident. According to the Security+ SY0-701 governance and risk management concepts, data classification assigns labels—such as public, internal, confidential, or restricted—to information based on its sensitivity, value to the organization, and potential impact if disclosed, altered, or destroyed. When a breach occurs, these classifications allow security teams and management to quickly assess how severe the incident is and what regulatory, legal, or business consequences may apply.

In this scenario, the compromised cloud-hosted solution contains customer information. By referencing the organization’s data classification scheme, incident responders can determine whether the exposed data includes personally identifiable information (PII), financial data, health records, or other regulated data types. This directly influences breach notification requirements, incident escalation, response prioritization, and communication with stakeholders. The SY0-701 study guide emphasizes that effective security governance depends on having clearly defined classification standards before an incident occurs, so decisions during response are consistent and defensible.

The other options do not meet the goal of determining sensitivity. Permission restrictions are access control mechanisms used to prevent unauthorized access, not to evaluate the importance of data after a compromise. Tabletop exercises are preparedness and training activities designed to test incident response plans, not to classify real data. Asset inventory identifies systems, hardware, software, and data locations, but it does not define how sensitive the data is; it only helps locate what may be affected.

Therefore, data classification is the most appropriate strategy for determining the sensitivity level of the breach, aligning directly with Security+ SY0-701 objectives related to risk management, privacy, and incident impact assessment.

Injecting malicious payloads into a hypervisor and accessing the host system is an example of VM escape, where the isolation between virtual machines and the host breaks down, allowing unauthorized control.

Cross-site scripting (B), malicious updates (C), and SQL injection (D) are unrelated to hypervisor host access.

VM escape is a critical vulnerability unique to virtualized environments described in SY0-701【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Business email compromise (BEC) is a type of targeted phishing attack where an attacker gains access to a legitimate business email account (or convincingly impersonates one) to manipulate financial transactions, such as redirecting payments to a fraudulent bank account. The scenario described matches this pattern.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A fail-open configuration means that if the firewall experiences an outage or failure, traffic is allowed to pass through rather than being blocked. This design decision directly prioritizes availability over other security principles.

The CIA Triad (Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability) is central in SY0-701. A fail-open firewall risks allowing unauthorized or malicious traffic during a failure, sacrificing security controls in order to maintain service uptime. This is typically used in environments where interruptions are unacceptable, such as:

Public-facing websites

Critical customer applications

Healthcare systems

Financial transaction portals

Fail-closed configurations, in contrast, prioritize confidentiality and integrity by blocking traffic when a failure occurs.

Because the organization chose fail-open, it demonstrates that maintaining continuous access to the website is more important than preventing potential exposure. This approach is aligned with the Availability pillar of the CIA model.

The SY0-701 exam emphasizes this design choice under General Security Concepts, specifically in resilience, failover mechanisms, and risk-based decisions when selecting fail-open vs. fail-closed strategies.

Running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints is primarily done to track the status of patching installations. These scans help identify any missing security patches orvulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Keeping the endpoints up-to-date with the latest patches is critical for maintaining security.

Finding shadow IT cloud deployments and monitoring hardware inventory are better achieved through other tools.

Hunting for active attackers would typically involve more real-time threat detection methods than daily vulnerability scans​​.

Shadow IT refers to employees using software or services without official approval, often introducing security risks due to lack of control, monitoring, or compliance. This can lead to vulnerabilities, data leakage, or policy violations.

Unskilled attacker (A) and hacktivist (B) are threat actor types; supply chain (D) refers to risks from external partners or vendors, not internal unauthorized software usage.

Shadow IT is highlighted in Security Program Management and Threats domains for its risk implications【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO) defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It directly impacts how frequently backups should occur to ensure data can be restored to a point no older than the RPO after a disruption.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO) (A) defines how quickly systems must be restored but does not dictate backup frequency. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) (C) and Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) (D) relate to system repair and reliability metrics, not backup schedules.

Understanding and defining RPO is a key part of the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) process covered in the Risk Management domain【6:Chapter 17†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.