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HPE7-A02 HP Aruba Certified Network Security Professional Exam Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your HP HPE7-A02 Aruba Certified Network Security Professional Exam certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 135 questions

What is a benefit of Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP)?

A.

It lets a device query whether a single certificate is revoked or not.

B.

It lets a device dynamically renew its certificate before the certificate expires.

C.

It lets a device download all the serial numbers for certificates revoked by a CA at once.

D.

It lets a device determine whether to trust a certificate without needing any root certificates installed.

You manage AOS-10 APs with HPE Aruba Networking Central. A role is configured on these APs with these rules (in order):

    Allow UDP on port 67 to any destination

    Allow any to network 10.1.4.0/23

    Deny any to network 10.1.0.0/18 + log

    Deny any to network 10.0.0.0/8

    Allow any to any destination

You add this new rule immediately before rule 4:

    Deny SSH to network 10.1.0.0/21 + denylist

After this change, what happens when a client assigned to this role sends SSH traffic to 10.1.7.12?

A.

The traffic is permitted

B.

The traffic is dropped and logged

C.

The traffic is dropped, and the client is denylisted

D.

The traffic is dropped (without any logging or further action against the client)

You are proposing HPE Aruba Networking ZTNA to an organization that currently uses a third-party, IPsec-based client-to-site VPN.

What is one advantage of ZTNA that you should emphasize?

A.

ZTNA improves security for SaaS applications, which now make up the majority of remote user traffic.

B.

ZTNA offers no greater security than the current solution, but it makes it much easier for admins to create and maintain consistent policies.

C.

ZTNA is specifically designed to enhance security for Internet of Things (IoT) devices, which traditional client-to-site VPNs cannot address.

D.

ZTNA shrinks the attack surface, eliminating publicly exposed ports and reducing the extent of the private network exposed to remote users.

The security team needs you to show them information about MAC spoofing attempts detected by HPE Aruba Networking ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM).

What should you do?

A.

Export the Access Tracker records on CPPM as an XML file.

B.

Use ClearPass Insight to run an Active Endpoint Security report.

C.

Integrate CPPM with ClearPass Device Insight (CPDI) and run a security report on CPDI.

D.

Show the security team the CPPM Endpoint Profiler dashboard.

You need to create a rule in an HPE Aruba Networking ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) role mapping policy that references a ClearPass Device Insight Tag.

Which Type (namespace) should you specify for the rule?

A.

Application

B.

Tips

C.

Device

D.

Endpoint

You are setting up an HPE Aruba Networking VIA solution for a company. You need to configure access control policies for applications and resources that remote

clients can access when connected to the VPN.

Where on the VPNC should you configure these policies?

A.

In the tunneled network settings within the VIA Connection Profile

B.

In the cloud security settings using IPsec maps

C.

In the roles to which VIA clients are assigned after IKE authentication

D.

In the roles to which VIA clients are assigned after VIA Web authentication

Which use case is fulfilled by applying a time range to a firewall rule on an AOS device?

A.

Enforcing the rule only during the specified time range

B.

Tuning the session timeout for sessions established with this rule

C.

Locking clients that violate the rule for the specified time range

D.

Setting the time range over which hit counts for the rule are aggregated

A company has AOS-CX switches and HPE Aruba Networking APs, which run AOS-10 and bridge their SSIDs. Company security policies require 802.1X on all edge ports, some of which connect to APs. How should you configure the auth-mode on AOS-CX switches?

A.

Leave all edge ports in client auth-mode and configure device auth-mode in the AP role.

B.

Configure all edge ports in client auth-mode.

C.

Configure all edge ports in device auth-mode.

D.

Leave all edge ports in device auth-mode and configure client auth-mode in the AP role.

(Note that the HPE Aruba Networking Central interface shown here might look slightly different from what you see in your HPE Aruba Networking Central

interface as versions change; however, similar concepts continue to apply.)

An HPE Aruba Networking 9x00 gateway is part of an HPE Aruba Networking Central group that has the settings shown in the exhibit. What would cause the

gateway to drop traffic as part of its IDPS settings?

A.

Its site-to-site VPN connections failing

B.

Traffic matching a rule in the active ruleset

C.

Its IDPS engine failing

D.

Traffic showing anomalous behavior

What role can Internet Key Exchange (IKE)/IKEv2 play in an HPE Aruba Networking client-to-site VPN?

A.

It provides an alternative to IPsec that is suitable for legacy clients.

B.

It provides a more modern and secure alternative to IPsec.

C.

It helps to negotiate the IPsec SA automatically and securely.

D.

It helps remote clients download IPsec profiles for later use.

A ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) service includes these settings:

    Role Mapping Policy:

      Evaluate: Select first

      Rule 1 conditions:

        Authorization:AD:Groups EQUALS Managers

        Authentication:TEAP-Method-1-Status EQUALS Success

        Rule 1 role: manager

Rule 2 conditions:

    Authentication:TEAP-Method-1-Status EQUALS Success

    Rule 2 role: domain-comp

Default role: [Other]

Enforcement Policy:

    Evaluate: Select first

    Rule 1 conditions:

      Tips Role EQUALS manager AND Tips Role EQUALS domain-comp

      Rule 1 profile list: domain-manager

Rule 2 conditions:

    Tips Role EQUALS manager

    Rule 2 profile list: manager-only

Rule 3 conditions:

    Tips Role EQUALS domain-comp

    Rule 3 profile list: domain-only

Default profile: [Deny access]

A client is authenticated by the service. CPPM collects attributes indicating that the user is in the Contractors group, and the client passed both TEAP methods.

Which enforcement policy will be applied?

A.

[Deny Access Profile]

B.

manager-only

C.

domain-manager

D.

domain-only

A company has a third-party security appliance deployed in its data center. The company wants to pass all traffic for certain clients through that device before forwarding that traffic toward its ultimate destination.

Which AOS-CX switch technology fulfills this use case?

A.

Virtual Network Based Tunneling (VNBT)

B.

MC-LAG

C.

Network Analytics Engine (NAE)

D.

Device profiles

Which statement describes Zero Trust Security?

A.

Companies must apply the same access controls to all users, regardless of identity.

B.

Companies that support remote workers cannot achieve zero trust security and must determine if the benefits outweigh the cost.

C.

Companies should focus on protecting their resources rather than on protecting the boundaries of their internal network.

D.

Companies can achieve zero trust security by strengthening their perimeter security to detect a wider range of threats.

You have run an Active Endpoint Security Report on HPE Aruba Networking ClearPass. The report indicates that hundreds of endpoints have MAC addresses but

no known IP addresses.

What is one step for addressing this issue?

A.

Set up network devices to implement RADIUS accounting to CPPM.

B.

Add CPPM's IP address to the IP helper list on routing switches.

C.

Set up switches to implement ARP inspection on client VLANs.

D.

Configure CPPM as a Syslog destination on network devices.

You are setting up user-based tunneling (UBT) between access layer AOS-CX switches and AOS-10 gateways. You have selected reserved (local) VLAN mode.

Tunneled devices include IoT devices, which should be assigned to:

    Roles: iot on the switches and iot-wired on the gateways

    VLAN: 64, for which the gateways route traffic.

IoT devices connect to the access layer switches' edge ports, and the access layer switches reach the gateways on their uplinks.

Where must you configure VLAN 64?

A.

In the iot-wired role and on no physical interfaces

B.

In the iot role and the iot-wired role and on no physical interfaces

C.

In the iot-wired role and the access switch uplinks

D.

In the iot role and the access switch uplinks

A company has a variety of HPE Aruba Networking solutions, including an HPE Aruba Networking infrastructure and HPE Aruba Networking ClearPass Policy

Manager (CPPM). The company passes traffic from the corporate LAN destined to the data center through a third-party SRX firewall. The company would like to

further protect itself from internal threats.

What is one solution that you can recommend?

A.

Have the third-party firewall send Syslogs to CPPM, which can work with network devices to lock internal attackers out of the network.

B.

Use tunnel mode SSIDs and user-based tunneling (UBT) on AOS-CX switches to pass all internal traffic directly through the third-party firewall.

C.

Add ClearPass Device Insight (CPDI) to the solution; integrate it with the third-party firewall to develop more complete device profiles.

D.

Configure CPPM to poll the third-party firewall for a broad array of information about internal clients, such as profile and posture.

A company uses HPE Aruba Networking ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) as a TACACS+ server to authenticate managers on its AOS-CX switches. You want

to assign managers to groups on the AOS-CX switch by name.

How do you configure this setting in a CPPM TACACS+ enforcement profile?

A.

Add the Shell service and set autocmd to the group name.

B.

Add the Shell service and set priv-Ivl to the group name.

C.

Add the Aruba:Common service and set Aruba-Admin-Role to the group name.

D.

Add the Aruba:Common service and set Aruba-Priv-Admin-User to the group name.

A company wants to apply a standard configuration to all AOS-CX switch ports and have the ports dynamically adjust their configuration based on the identity of

the user or device that connects. They want to centralize configuration of the identity-based settings as much as possible.

What should you recommend?

A.

Having HPE Aruba Networking ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) send standard RADIUS AVPs to customize port settings

B.

Having switches pull port configurations dynamically from HPE Aruba Networking Activate

C.

Having switches download user-roles from HPE Aruba Networking gateways

D.

Having switches download user-roles from HPE Aruba Networking ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM)

The exhibit shows the 802.1X-related settings for Windows domain clients. What should admins change to make the settings follow best security practices?

A.

Specify at least two server names under the "Connect to these servers" field.

B.

Select the desired Trusted Root Certificate Authority and select the check box next to "Don't prompt users."

C.

Under the "Connect to these servers" field, use a wildcard in the server name.

D.

Clear the check box for using simple certificate selection and select the desired certificate manually.

A company has AOS-CX switches and HPE Aruba Networking ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM). The company wants switches to implement 802.1X authentication to CPPM and download user roles. What is one task that you must complete on CPPM to support this use case?

A.

Export roles on CPPM to a file that uses XML format.

B.

Create an admin account for the switch on CPPM with the HPE Aruba Networking User Role Download privilege level.

C.

Configure RADIUS enforcement profiles that specify the HPE-User-Role VSA.

D.

Upload the switch TPM certificate as a trusted CA certificate with the Others usage.

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Total 135 questions
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