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CAPM PMI Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your PMI CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 1250 questions

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

A.

prototypes.

B.

expert judgment.

C.

alternatives identification.

D.

product analysis.

An input of the Create WBS process is:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

During project selection, which factor is most important?

A.

Types of constraints

B.

Internal business needs

C.

Budget

D.

Schedule

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

The diagram below is an example of a:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

A.

stakeholder register.

B.

project management plan.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements management plan.

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

What is project management?

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

A.

Project

B.

Scope

C.

Contract

D.

Program

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

A.

Product analysis

B.

Project charter

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Project scope statement

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

Resource calendars are included in the:

A.

staffing management plan.

B.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

C.

project communications plan.

D.

project charter.

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Create WBS.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

A.

cost management plan.

B.

risk management plan,

C.

activity list,

D.

risk register.

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

A.

Communications management plan

B.

Human resource plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

How does a requirements traceability matrix help to determine whether a product is ready for delivery?

A.

It confirms the completion of all stories in the backlog.

B.

It tracks links between the approved requirements and each work product.

C.

It assesses the quality of test cases and expected results.

D.

It captures assigned tasks and their estimated durations.

Select three processes that are associated with Project Schedule Management.

A.

Define Activities

B.

Plan Resource Management

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

E.

Acquire Resources

What does leadership involve?

A.

Working with others through discussion or debate to guide them from one point to another

B.

Directing another person from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors

C.

Working with a person using expert judgment to develop the technical deliverables

D.

Directing another person to develop the necessary expertise to establish technical deliverables

What is the recommended approach for handling risk in a high-variability environment?

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Iterative

D.

Incremental

The handoff of the first version of a software application to the operational team has taken a month longer than anticipated. How could this extended transition time have been avoided?

A.

If the end-user documentation was more thorough

B.

If the operations manager was invited to all sprint reviews

C.

If the operation team members were trained externally

D.

If the transition process was agreed upon during the build

In a demonstration meeting with a customer, the project team presented deliverables that were considered ready for customer use. The team based the results on a checklist of all the required criteria for the project.

Which of the following elements is the team using?

A.

Definition of ready (DoR)

B.

Burndown chart

C.

Backlog refinement

D.

Definition of done (DoD)

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Total 1250 questions
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