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CAPM PMI Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Free Practice Exam Questions (2025 Updated)

Prepare effectively for your PMI CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) certification with our extensive collection of free, high-quality practice questions. Each question is designed to mirror the actual exam format and objectives, complete with comprehensive answers and detailed explanations. Our materials are regularly updated for 2025, ensuring you have the most current resources to build confidence and succeed on your first attempt.

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Total 1305 questions

An organization that is being interviewed online has recently experienced a severe network outage. Consequently, the organization has stated that it is required to have a working data network.

Which classification should be assigned to data network requirements?

A.

Customer requirement

B.

Transition requirement

C.

Solution requirement

D.

Business requirement

Who identifies project requirements in the early phase of the project?

A.

Business analyst, product team, and key stakeholders

B.

Project manager, business analyst, and key stakeholders

C.

Project manager, business analyst, and project sponsor

D.

Project sponsor, business analyst, and key stakeholders

Leadership and management are often used interchangeably. Which of the following is leadership more involved in?

A.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using authoritarian power

B.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using positional power

C.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using relational power

D.

Guiding, collaborating, and influencing others towards a specific goal using autocratic power

What are the two most common contract types used in a project?

A.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract and fixed price contract

B.

Fixed price contract and cost-reimbursable contract

C.

Cost-reimbursable contract and time and material (T&M) contract

D.

Time and material (T&M) contract and cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

A.

Project

B.

Plan

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

A.

state the guiding principles of the organization.

B.

identify alternatives to generate different approaches.

C.

state what is out of scope.

D.

outline the results of the Delphi technique.

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

A.

Ishikawa

B.

Milestone

C.

Influence

D.

Decision tree

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

A.

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

Types of internal failure costs include:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Requirements documentation

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

A.

Fixed Fee

B.

Free Float

C.

Fixed Finish

D.

Finish-to-Finish

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A.

A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control charts

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Histogram

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Time Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

A.

Determine Budget.

B.

Baseline Budget.

C.

Control Costs.

D.

Estimate Costs.

The project manager and project team are developing approximations of the cost of resources needed to complete the project work. On which process are they working?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Determine Budget

When executing a project, a recently hired subject matter expert (SME) who reviewed the execution progress remarked that the schedule could be crashed and that the schedule was not assessed properly. What should the project manager do next?

A.

Update the schedule baseline

B.

Review the schedule baseline

C.

Initiate a change request

D.

Update the risk register

In agile projects while performing scope management. What is the definition of requirements

A.

Metrics

B.

Sprint

C.

Charter

D.

Backlog i

What is the most important skill that project managers should possess to lead stakeholders throughout a project?

A.

Communication

B.

Problem-solving

C.

Negotiating

D.

Trust-building

Which process determines the correctness of deliverables?

A.

Verify Deliverables

B.

Validate Deliverables

C.

Review Deliverables

D.

Analyze Deliverables

Which of the following is part of the project sponsor's responsibility?

A.

Monitoring the business value

B.

Advocating the business value

C.

Tracking the business value

D.

Auditing the business value

An adaptive project manager is handling a five-sprint cycle to deliver a minimum viable product (MVP). After the third sprint, the productivity of the team drops to 30% due to a change in the way the team operates.

Which of the following changes has caused this loss in productivity?

A.

Two of the team members have been working in silos using different methods to validate their performance.

B.

The team velocity was measured in the third sprint since the tool to measure velocity was introduced only in the third sprint.

C.

The team picked up technical debt items in the third sprint as technical debt can only be picked up after completing two sprints.

D.

Two of the team members were asked to do multitasking, which they did not do in the previous two sprints.

A project manager engages a highly specialized resource who is in a different location and cannot join the regular team meetings. This is leading to delays in productivity. How can the project manager assist the team to resolve the issue?

A.

Request the new resource be relocated with the rest of the team and document a change request forthe project.

B.

Ask the team to identify possible options to resolve the issue with minimal impact to the new resource.

C.

Log this issue in the issue log and escalate it to the management team, asking them to replace the new team member.

D.

Consult the communications management plan to review available options, such as special virtual meetings, with the new resource.

A business analyst has encountered a conflict related to competing requirements on an existing project. What tool should the business analyst use to resolve this issue?

A.

Peer review

B.

Procurement management

C.

Weighted ranking

D.

Risk assessment

Which is an aspect of the requirements management plan?

A.

Detailed project scope statement

B.

Creation of work breakdown strucure (WBS)

C.

Impact analysis

D.

Duration for implementation

What behavior refers to leadership style?

A.

Do things right.

B.

Do the right things

C.

Ask how and when.

D.

Rely on control

A project manager is assigned to a project, and the sponsor signals to perform first actions. However, the project manager is unsure how to apply organizational resources into project activities before a formal authorization. Which document should be used in this case?

A.

Project plan

B.

Business case

C.

Budget requirement

D.

Project charter

A project manager is working on project cost management. The following information is current.

* Planned value = 30

* Actual cost = 35

* Earned value = 28

Considering this data, which project indicator is correct?

A.

Schedule Variance (SV) = 2

B.

Cost Performance Index (CPI) = 0.80

C.

Schedule Performance Index (SPI) = 1.93

D.

Cost Variance (CV) = 7

A project manager is reviewing the change requests, deliverables, and the project plan in Which project management process does this review belong?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Closes Project or Phase

D.

Perform itegrated Change Control

Construction of a building has stopped due to a supplier's failure to deliver concrete. The project schedule is behind by three months.

What should the project manager do to overcome this problem and put the project back on track?

A.

Follow the risk response plan and allocate resources, if needed, to overcome the issue.

B.

Consult the legal department and subject matter experts (SMEs) regarding what to do to avoid failure.

C.

Extend the time of product delivery and use management reserve to cover any losses.

D.

Accept any penalties that might occur and continue working as initially planned.

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Inspection

C.

Project analysis

D.

Document analysis

Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Initiating

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

A.

0.8

B.

1

C.

1.25

D.

1.8

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

A.

Define Scope.

B.

Develop Project Management Plan.

C.

Plan Scope Management.

D.

Plan Quality Management.

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

Which type of graphic is displayed below?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Context diagram

C.

Control chart

D.

Pareto diagram

What process in Project Risk Management prioritizes project risks?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Implement Risk Responses

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:

A.

provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.

B.

tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.

C.

guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.

D.

creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsections.

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity E is how many days?

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

8

Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

A.

Business case

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Risk register

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Force/direct

Which items are components of a project management plan?

A.

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

B.

Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information

C.

Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars

D.

Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?

A.

Update

B.

Preventive action

C.

Defect repair

D.

Corrective action

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Total 1305 questions
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