PMI-ACP PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

The correct answer is A – Reduced or improper customer collaboration.

One of the core principles of Agile is continuous collaboration with the customer. If multiple feature changes are only identified during a late-stage review, it typically indicates that the customer was not involved sufficiently throughout the development process.

From the Agile Manifesto (cited in the PMI Agile Practice Guide):

“Customer collaboration over contract negotiation.”

“Working software is delivered frequently… with a preference to the shorter timescale.”

And from the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Ongoing engagement with the customer helps align product features with actual needs and reduce surprises during late-stage reviews.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths also emphasizes:

“When customers are involved in iteration reviews and backlog grooming, their evolving needs are captured in real time. Surprises during release reviews usually reflect a failure of ongoing communication.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options don’t directly address the root cause:

B may contribute, but customer collaboration is the key differentiator in agile.

C and D are traditional causes of waterfall-style failure, not typically root causes in agile.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is C – Invite the new release manager to the sprint demo and ask for help. Agile encourages stakeholder collaboration and visibility. Sprint reviews (also known as demos) are key opportunities for stakeholders, including release managers, to engage directly with the team and provide feedback. Since the issue is related to environmental instability and the new release manager is a key stakeholder, involving them in the sprint review enables mutual understanding and sets the stage for collaboration.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use the sprint review to present completed work to stakeholders and receive direct feedback. It is also an opportunity to engage stakeholders who can influence the delivery environment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile encourages frequent stakeholder collaboration. Sprint reviews should include key stakeholders who are responsible for operational and release matters to ensure alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Options A and D are passive approaches and may not lead to effective communication. Option B (attending daily standups) may be helpful but is not the best opportunity for strategic involvement compared to a sprint demo.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is B – Recommend an Agile delivery approach and provide information to the stakeholders on Agile values and principles.

Agile enables early and continuous delivery of valuable software, short feedback loops, and faster time to market. When competitive advantage and speed are critical, introducing Agile principles allows the organization to remain flexible, respond to change, and deliver increments faster.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile approaches provide quicker feedback, faster time to market, and more opportunity to deliver business value early. They are ideal in dynamic environments with evolving customer needs.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 1.3 – When to Use Agile)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Agile emphasizes early and continuous delivery, allowing organizations to test, learn, and adjust quickly to changes—critical for achieving business agility and competitive advantage.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 1 – Agile Mindset)

Why other options are not optimal:

A suggests a predictive mindset and planning before implementation.

C focuses only on Scrum roles, which may be too narrow for organizational-level change.

D relies on traditional governance structures that may resist Agile change.

Answer: B

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Transparency is key in agile. The PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1 Communications) emphasizes the use of information radiators—visual displays such as task boards, burndown charts, or Kanban boards that immediately communicate project status. These tools make progress visible to all stakeholders without needing detailed documentation.

Mike Griffiths in the PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement) reinforces that collocated displays or shared online boards reduce misunderstandings and keep stakeholders aligned.

Option D is correct: a public project board offers real-time visibility and promotes transparency.

Option A contradicts agile by emphasizing documentation over working software.

Option B limits visibility to a subset of stakeholders and is passive.

Option C disrupts the team’s daily focus—stand-ups are not intended for stakeholder participation.

The correct answer is C — Ask the team member to update daily progress on the information radiators.

In Agile, transparency and self-organization are key. Information radiators (e.g., task boards, digital dashboards) allow all team members and stakeholders to see the current state of work at any time. If a team member cannot attend stand-ups, they should still update their tasks on the board so that others are informed.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Information radiators ensure transparent communication of progress, risks, and blockers to all team members and stakeholders. These should be updated in real-time or daily by those responsible.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.6 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths:

“Task boards and progress charts allow anyone to see project status without waiting for meetings. Team members must take responsibility for keeping them current.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A punishes the team for one member’s lack of participation and doesn’t solve the communication issue.

B reintroduces a command-and-control model, reducing team ownership.

D is dishonest and violates agile principles of transparency.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is A – Plan activities that will require the team to work collaboratively on a regular basis.

Agile teams thrive on collaboration, shared ownership, and collective problem solving. While individual performance may meet goals short-term, long-term value and quality come from integrated teamwork. An agile practitioner should help foster collaboration through team-building activities or practices like pair programming, collective backlog grooming, and swarming.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are self-organizing and collaborative. Encouraging collaborative practices builds trust, increases quality, and improves alignment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Building Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Collaboration does not happen automatically—it must be supported. Facilitating shared work and group problem-solving leads to stronger team dynamics and better outcomes.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are less effective:

B introduces rigid evaluation that contradicts agile values.

C bypasses coaching and assumes the current team can’t improve.

D ignores the growing problem of misalignment and disengagement.

Answer: A

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A quick mock-up (or prototype) is a highly effective way to visually represent the product ' s features and functionality to stakeholders. This allows stakeholders to get a tangible sense of what the product will look like and how it will work. By iterating on this mock-up and adjusting it based on feedback, the team can build consensus and gain stakeholder approval more effectively. This approach encourages active collaboration and ensures that the product aligns with stakeholder expectations early in the development process.

The correct answer is D – Planning poker.

Planning poker is a consensus-based estimation technique commonly used in Agile projects. During this technique, team members discuss user stories, clarify details, and independently assign story points. The facilitator (often the Scrum Master) ensures balanced participation. This process encourages team collaboration and reduces estimation bias.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Planning poker is a common estimation technique where team members discuss the story, then individually provide estimates using a card deck, reaching consensus over multiple rounds.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation Techniques)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Planning poker is based on Wideband Delphi and allows teams to converge on estimates through discussion and consensus. It is particularly useful for relative estimation of story points.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why other options are incorrect:

A (Lessons learned) applies to retrospective activities, not estimation.

B (Wideband Delphi) is the foundation of planning poker but is more formal and anonymous.

C (Formal point counting) is not a standard Agile estimation technique.

Answer: D

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In an adaptive approach to project management, particularly in agile, empowering team leads to manage their teams’ issues and impediments is a key practice. This allows for more autonomy within the teams, ensures that obstacles are handled promptly, and promotes frequent communication among team leads. By giving the leads the authority to resolve issues, they can ensure smooth collaboration across cross-functional teams and maintain alignment with the overall project goals.

Velocity is a tool for internal team improvement and forecasting, not external benchmarking. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Velocity and Estimation) and Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), tracking velocity over time helps teams assess the impact of process changes, refine estimates, and validate their continuous improvement efforts.

Option C is correct: it focuses on team-level improvement.

Option A uses velocity inappropriately for performance review, which goes against agile principles.

Option B promotes unhealthy comparisons across teams.

Option D is partially true, but stakeholder communication is secondary to internal use.

The correct answer is D – Reestimate all stories including values for A, B, and C. Agile promotes empirical process control, meaning teams adapt based on what they learn. When significant deviations are found in actual effort vs. story point estimates, the team should revisit and refine their estimation process, including reestimating stories to better align with reality.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Estimates are revisited based on experience. Teams inspect and adapt during retrospectives, using data to improve future estimation accuracy.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Planning)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“When estimates prove inaccurate, teams should reestimate affected stories. Estimating is a collaborative process, and learning from past deviations is a key part of adaptive planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A may distort estimation by comparison and not correct the root issue.

B manipulates velocity data and violates agile principles of transparency.

C attempts to “force fit” effort rather than inspect and adapt.

Answer: D

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When issues recur across multiple iterations, it’s a strong indication that the root cause has not been addressed. The PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6 Retrospectives) and Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement) recommend performing root cause analysis techniques (e.g., 5 Whys, Fishbone diagram) to ensure that the true source of recurring problems is uncovered and resolved.

Option B is correct: identifying root causes is essential to sustainable improvements.

Option A may help but doesn’t address the underlying team-level process.

Option C is useful after a solution is implemented but not the priority when the cause is unknown.

Option D is helpful for tracking, but again, ineffective if the root cause is unidentified.

In Kanban, limiting work in progress (WIP) is a key practice to improve task flow and reduce bottlenecks. By restricting the number of tasks that can be worked on at any given time, the team is forced to focus on completing the tasks that are already in progress before taking on new ones. This helps reduce the accumulation of tasks in the " In Progress " column, ensures that tasks move through the workflow more efficiently, and ultimately helps to meet project timelines more effectively. It also promotes better quality, as team members can focus on fewer tasks at a time.

The correct answer is A – Continue working on the task until it is completed. Agile teams commit to the sprint goal and are expected to deliver what they’ve planned to the best of their ability. If a task takes longer than estimated, the team inspects and adapts but generally tries to complete the committed work within the current sprint.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are committed to delivering the work they planned for the iteration. If estimates are off, the team inspects the impact and continues, learning from it for future planning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Iteration Planning and Commitment)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“If something takes longer than expected, the team should strive to complete it and use the experience to improve future estimation. Agile teams maintain sprint commitment integrity.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

B is punitive and unaligned with Agile values.

C contradicts Agile’s emphasis on stable teams and sustainable pace.

D breaks commitment and risks value delivery.

Answer: A

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In a newly formed team, especially in a regulated environment like pharmaceuticals, guiding the team to collaborate effectively and share knowledge is essential. As the team lacks subject matter expertise, fostering an environment of continuous learning and collaboration will help them quickly build knowledge and improve their performance.

It is crucial to organize a meeting to clarify roles and responsibilities. This ensures everyone understands their individual contributions and how they relate to the team’s goals. Clear role definitions are particularly important in a cross-functional team to avoid confusion and ensure smooth collaboration.

The correct answer is D – Implement a spike to enhance creativity by experimenting with new techniques and process ideas in order to discover more efficient and effective ways of working.

A spike is a time-boxed research or prototyping activity used to explore uncertainty, investigate a technology, or gain deeper knowledge of an implementation. Spikes are especially useful when a team lacks familiarity with certain technologies, as they reduce risk and support better estimation.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Spikes are a type of exploration that agile teams use when they are uncertain about a technology or technique. They are time-boxed research efforts aimed at reducing risk and improving future delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Spikes)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Spikes allow the team to gain knowledge needed to understand a technical or design problem. They are particularly useful when the team lacks domain or technical experience and are often used to improve estimation accuracy.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why other options fall short:

A and B manipulate iteration length without addressing the core problem (lack of technical knowledge).

C increases overhead without solving the learning gap or preventing the root cause (rework).

Answer: D

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answers and comprehensive explanations drawn from authoritative sources including the PMI Agile Practice Guide, PMBOK® Guide, Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, and Andy Crowe’s PMI-ACP Exam materials.

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When the team is uncertain about a technical solution, a spike—a timeboxed research task—is used to explore possible approaches. The PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Spikes) and Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning) recommend spikes as a formal way to explore unknowns and reduce risk in the backlog.

Option B is correct: spikes provide structure for resolving uncertainty.

Option A ignores the technical risk.

Option C disrupts team structure and ownership.

Option D defers the problem without seeking resolution.

The correct answer is D – Have the Product Owner explain the product vision and review the release plan with the team. One of the Product Owner’s key responsibilities is to communicate the product vision and ensure the team understands how their work aligns with business value. This fosters alignment and motivation.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner is responsible for communicating the product vision and roadmap. This ensures that the team understands the ‘why’ behind the work and how each piece contributes to overall business goals.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement and Product Vision)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Teams need context for their work. The product owner provides this by clearly sharing the vision and maintaining a transparent roadmap.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is useful but doesn’t address the larger product context.

B may help with story structuring but doesn’t clarify vision.

C delays resolving an immediate misunderstanding.

Answer: D

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Spikes are meant for experimentation and learning, not guaranteed outcomes. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Spikes), if a spike does not lead to a clear solution, the team can extend or reframe it, especially when aiming for a sustainable long-term solution. Agile supports encouraging experimentation and learning from failure.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution) recommends adapting when a spike’s results are inconclusive—redefining the scope and collaborating as a team increases the chance of a valuable outcome.

Option B is correct: it continues learning and promotes team collaboration.

Option A undercuts team ownership.

Option C prioritizes a short-term fix and undermines agile values.

Option D is not needed at this early stage—root cause analysis is better for recurring or systemic issues.