PMI-ACP PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Free Practice Exam Questions (2026 Updated)

Stakeholder participation, especially during sprint reviews, is critical to agile success. The PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2: Stakeholder Engagement) emphasizes the importance of actively engaging stakeholders throughout the project lifecycle, particularly during key ceremonies like sprint reviews, where feedback shapes the product.

Mike Griffiths in the PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement) states that stakeholders need to understand the value of their input and how it influences product direction. The agile practitioner or Scrum Master should educate and influence stakeholders by demonstrating the tangible impact of their participation.

Option D is correct: aligning stakeholders with the benefits of engagement fosters participation.

Option A, B, and C are passive substitutes and don’t address the root issue of stakeholder disengagement.

The correct answer is C – Non-functional requirements should have been added to the definition of done. Non-functional requirements such as performance, security, or usability criteria apply across stories and should be included in the Definition of Done (DoD) to ensure consistent delivery of quality attributes.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The definition of done should incorporate quality standards, including non-functional requirements. This ensures these standards are consistently applied across all deliverables.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Non-functional requirements are often best represented in the DoD so they’re applied universally. Without this, teams may deliver functionality that lacks necessary quality characteristics.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A would help but isn’t sufficient for global system qualities.

B is suitable for specific stories but doesn’t ensure consistency across the product.

D is helpful but doesn’t guarantee alignment with quality standards.

Answer: C

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The first priority for the Scrum Master should be to ensure the project has a dedicated, cross-functional team. Scrum teams are self-organizing and cross-functional, meaning they have all the skills needed to complete the work without relying on external resources. The Scrum Master should focus on forming a team that can collaboratively work on the product development, ensuring they are committed to the project and understand their roles and responsibilities within the Scrum framework. This is essential for the team to be effective and aligned with the Scrum principles, ensuring that they can deliver value in iterative cycles.

The root cause of the issue seems to be a focus on process and planning meetings, which may be impacting the team ' s ability to deliver effectively. Implementing Kanban, which emphasizes a pull system and focuses on continuous delivery without overwhelming the team with unnecessary meetings, allows for smoother workflow and can address bottlenecks. It helps the team focus more on value delivery rather than rigid planning and process constraints, thus potentially improving the quality and reducing unnecessary delays.

In Agile, ensuring that the product works without bugs or missing features can be achieved through continuous testing and validation of the product. Test-driven development (TDD) is an approach where tests are written before the code is developed. This helps ensure that each feature is fully tested as it is built, focusing on customer requirements from the start and preventing issues from accumulating. By using TDD, the product owner ensures the product is being tested incrementally, which reduces the risk of defects and aligns with customer expectations for a high-quality product upon release.

The correct answer is C — Generate insights at the next retrospective and adjust processes as decided by the team.

The retrospective is the proper agile ceremony for identifying issues related to team performance, communication, and process inefficiencies. It ' s an opportunity for the team to collaboratively review their work, generate insights, and agree on improvements. Inconsistent defect data is a team-level issue best addressed through inspection and adaptation during the retrospective.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Retrospectives allow the team to inspect how they work together and continuously improve their team norms, working agreements, and definitions of done.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 — Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Retrospectives provide teams the opportunity to identify recurring problems, such as inconsistent defect documentation, and agree upon actions for improvement. Teams should self-organize and own their process improvements.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 — Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A is disruptive — iterations are not stopped unless critical.

B misuses the planning meeting, which is for backlog commitment, not process review.

D treats a process improvement as a backlog item, which may dilute accountability.

Answer: C

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In an agile environment, even a chaotic one, a release plan should focus on providing a high-level view of the product ' s objectives, the key features to be developed, and the iteration timelines. Including dependencies and specifying the responsible teams for each component ensures that expectations are set clearly for stakeholders while also providing the flexibility needed to adapt to changes. By outlining both the objectives and iteration details, the product owner ensures transparency and alignment with stakeholders while maintaining the iterative nature of agile development. This approach allows for informed decision-making without locking the team into overly rigid plans.

The correct answer is A – Conduct frequent demos and obtain feedback from users throughout the development of the next release. Agile is feedback-driven. Regular demonstrations (e.g., sprint reviews) help gather customer input to continuously enhance the product and optimize value.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Frequent demonstrations and validation with stakeholders ensure that teams deliver value continuously and adapt the product based on real-time feedback.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Feedback and Product Review)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Customer feedback loops are vital to agile. Demos provide a mechanism for validating delivered functionality, identifying improvement opportunities, and maximizing product value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B contradicts continuous delivery and customer collaboration.

C may help with scale, but doesn’t directly address value improvement.

D is more about process quality than business value.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is A – Self-organize. One of the fundamental principles of agile is that teams are self-organizing and cross-functional. During iteration planning, once the stories are accepted into the sprint, the team collaborates to break down those stories into tasks and assign work among themselves based on skills and interest.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are self-organizing, meaning they collectively decide how to accomplish their work, rather than being directed by others. This principle supports autonomy and trust, and enhances team ownership and commitment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“Agile teams are trusted to manage themselves. Once user stories are selected during iteration planning, the team decomposes stories into tasks and self-assigns work collaboratively.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

B contradicts agile principles of self-assignment and voluntary collaboration.

C may be valuable for clarification but is not the first action after stories are added.

D identifying the Scrum Master is irrelevant to the task breakdown phase.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is A – Use the DISC framework with each team member.

The DISC model (Dominance, Influence, Steadiness, and Conscientiousness) is a well-established behavioral assessment tool used to understand communication preferences, motivators, and individual work styles. Agile leaders may use tools like DISC to foster emotional intelligence, improve collaboration, and re-engage disengaged team members.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Effective agile leaders understand individual team members ' communication styles and motivations. Tools such as DISC or MBTI can help assess personality preferences and enable better coaching.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Behavioral models such as DISC support the development of emotionally intelligent teams. They help leaders tailor their coaching and communication approaches to individual needs.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options are incorrect:

B (MoSCoW) is a prioritization technique, not a tool for personal engagement.

C (Hiring a SAFe coach) is overkill and not the most direct or relevant response.

D (BDUF – Big Design Up Front) is a traditional approach unrelated to team dynamics or motivation.

Answer: A

The correct answer is C – Ask the team to collaboratively work out a solution. Agile teams are self-organizing, and problem-solving is most effective when handled collaboratively. The Scrum Master’s role is to facilitate discussions and remove impediments—not to impose solutions.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Problem detection and resolution is a continuous process. Agile teams regularly identify and resolve problems as part of the team’s responsibility. The Scrum Master supports the team by facilitating resolution discussions rather than solving problems directly.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.5 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Mike Griffiths states:

“When technical challenges arise, the team should collaborate to assess the issue and determine the best course of action. The Scrum Master enables this by fostering open communication and guiding the team through the problem-solving process.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A delays resolution and pushes it into the future unnecessarily.

B undermines team autonomy and ownership.

D introduces unnecessary hierarchy into team-level problem-solving.

Answer: C

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A team charter with clearly defined norms, rules, and agreements is a critical tool for promoting trust and collaboration, especially in a globally distributed team. It establishes a shared understanding of how the team will work together, addresses potential communication challenges, and helps create a collaborative and respectful environment. By having these norms in place, team members from different cultures and time zones can align their expectations and behaviors, which is essential for overcoming challenges and preventing conflicts. This approach helps to foster a positive and productive team dynamic.

After the product vision is communicated, the product owner should ensure that the product backlog is prioritized so the team can focus on delivering the most valuable features first. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1 Product Backlog and Vision Alignment), prioritizing the backlog helps teams understand the product roadmap and plan their efforts accordingly.

Mike Griffiths in the PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning) reinforces that the product owner’s key responsibility is backlog prioritization, not task management or detailed design.

Option C is correct: prioritizing the backlog enables the team to understand and plan the roadmap.

Option A and B are too detailed for the product owner and move into the team ' s domain.

Option D is a team responsibility, not the product owner’s.

The correct answer is A because an Agile leader, such as a Scrum Master, is a servant-leader and facilitator. The Scrum Master supports the development team by helping remove impediments and facilitating healthy team dynamics. When there is misalignment or interpersonal conflict, the Scrum Master should help the team explore the root causes and encourage self-directed resolution.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile coaches facilitate conflict resolution by helping individuals understand each other’s perspectives and guiding them to collaborative solutions. The goal is to promote team ownership of outcomes and reinforce healthy communication.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.3 – Facilitating Agile Practices)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“The role of the Scrum Master is not to direct or micromanage the team, but to facilitate communication and remove barriers that prevent team members from collaborating effectively. In conflict scenarios, the Scrum Master should help the team uncover the root issue, then allow them to resolve it constructively.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Option B is slightly less effective than A because it escalates to the whole team before trying a focused resolution.

Option C abdicates responsibility and may allow conflict to worsen.

Option D contradicts agile’s emphasis on self-organizing teams.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is D – Facilitate a just-in-time exploration of the functionality by the customer and the team.

Agile promotes emergent planning and just-in-time elaboration. When a customer cannot clearly define how a feature should function, collaborative exploration at the point of need (just-in-time) ensures shared understanding, timely feedback, and minimized waste.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“User stories are deliberately kept light to encourage conversation. These conversations often occur just before the story is scheduled for development—known as just-in-time elaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Backlog Preparation and Refinement)

Andy Crowe also explains:

“Agile teams defer detail until the last responsible moment. This supports flexibility and better understanding through collaboration. Facilitating exploration sessions when needed helps clarify expectations and reduce uncertainty.”

(Andy Crowe, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Value Delivery)

Why other options are less suitable:

A may be helpful for technical uncertainty, but the issue here is lack of functional clarity from the customer.

B (iteration 0) is more of a preparatory stage; it is not typically used mid-project.

C suggests decomposition but without resolving the lack of understanding; it assumes the problem is granularity, not clarity.

Hence, the correct agile action is to engage collaboratively at the point of need: D

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The first step for a new Scrum Master is to gain context and alignment. According to the PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.3: Agile Mindset), agile leaders must understand the product vision and goals to provide proper support to the team and align delivery efforts with organizational objectives.

Mike Griffiths in the PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 2: Agile Principles and Mindset) emphasizes that new leaders should start by understanding stakeholder expectations, enterprise context, and business drivers before making operational decisions like backlog setup or sprint planning.

Option B is correct: understanding the project vision provides critical context.

Option A is premature without first understanding the broader organizational objectives.

Option C (sprint 0) can be useful but should follow alignment on vision and context.

Option D skips necessary discovery and planning.

The correct answer is B — Create a spike story to analyze the impact of the threshold requirement on current stories.

A “spike” is a research activity used in Agile to investigate a technical or functional uncertainty. In this case, the performance threshold requires exploration to understand its impact on multiple backlog items. Creating a time-boxed spike allows the team to analyze without prematurely committing to changes.

PMI Agile Practice Guide describes spikes as:

“A spike is a user story for time-boxed research or exploration. Teams use spikes when they need more information to estimate or deliver a story.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 — Types of Backlog Items)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“When a new requirement introduces uncertainty, such as performance constraints, creating a spike helps the team determine scope, risk, and impact before incorporating it into backlog stories.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 — Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

A prematurely alters acceptance criteria before understanding the impact.

C leans toward big upfront design (non-agile).

D skips the exploration phase and directly breaks into tasks.

Answer: B

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The daily standup is focused on ensuring the team stays synchronized on their commitments for the sprint, and it is meant to be a short meeting where team members quickly discuss what they did the previous day, what they plan to do today, and any blockers they are facing. It is not a forum for external stakeholders to ask detailed questions about the sprint backlog or delivery timelines, as this can disrupt the team ' s focus and hinder the meeting ' s efficiency.

By explaining that the standup is about synchronizing commitments, the project manager helps the business partners understand the purpose of the meeting and suggests an appropriate time and place for discussing more detailed or strategic topics.

In Scrum, responsibilities are distributed among the product owner, scrum master, and development team to ensure clear accountability and efficient value delivery.

The product owner manages the product backlog, ensures alignment with business goals, and defines the priorities for the team.

The scrum master facilitates the Scrum process, removes impediments, and ensures adherence to Agile principles.

The development team owns the sprint backlog and is responsible for incremental delivery toward the sprint goal.

This division of responsibilities ensures that each role focuses on their core areas, fostering transparency, collaboration, and value-driven development.